• DOSE ESCALATION PHASE: Women with recurrent or persistent epithelial ovarian, fallopian tube or primary peritoneal cancer are eligible. This includes, but is not limited to, the following histologic types: serous adenocarcinoma (grade 1,2, or 3/ high grade or low grade), endometrioid adenocarcinoma, carcinosarcoma, mucinous adenocarcinoma, undifferentiated carcinoma, clear cell adenocarcinoma, mixed epithelial adenocarcinoma, transitional cell carcinoma, or adenocarcinoma not otherwise specified
• NOTE: Patients who have evidence of DDR deficiency /HRD are eligible if they are at the point in their disease course where they are appropriate candidates for single agent Doxil
• EXPANSION PHASE: The expansion phase will simultaneously accrue to 2 cohorts, low grade serous ovarian cancer (LGSOC) and high grade serous ovarian cancer (HGSOC)
• Patients accrued to the LGSOC cohort will have recurrent or persistent low grade serous ovarian cancer or grade 1 serous ovarian cancer
• Patients accrued to the HGSOC cohort will have recurrent or persistent high grade serous ovarian cancer
• Patients must have measurable disease by defined Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) 1.1 criteria
• Prior therapy:
• Patients must have received at least one prior line of platinum-based chemotherapy
• Patients can have received an unlimited number of additional lines of chemotherapy, targeted therapy, biologic therapy, or hormonal therapy
• Any prior therapy directed at the malignant tumor, including chemotherapy, biologic/targeted therapy, immunotherapy, or hormonal therapy must be discontinued at least 4 weeks, one cycle, or 5 half-lives (whichever is shortest) prior to study treatment initiation
• Age >= 18 years. Because no dosing or adverse event data are currently available on the use of peposertib (M3814) in combination with pegylated liposomal doxorubicin in patients < 18 years of age, children are excluded from this study, but will be eligible for future pediatric trials
• Patients with platinum-sensitive ovarian cancer are eligible for only the dose expansion phase if their provider feels that PLD would be an appropriate treatment option for them. Patients with platinum-sensitive ovarian cancer should also be offered any higher priority studies for which they are potentially eligible and/or platinum based chemotherapy or a PARP inhibitor if they are eligible for such therapy
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status =< 2 (Karnofsky >= 60%)
• Patients must have a cardiac ejection fraction >= the institutional lower limit of normal (LLN)
• Hemoglobin >= 9 g/dL
• Absolute neutrophil count >= 1,500/mcL
• Platelets >= 100,000/mcL
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (ULN)
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) (serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase [SGOT])/alanine aminotransferase (ALT) (serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase [SGPT]) =< 3 x institutional ULN
• Alkaline phosphatase =< 2.5 x institutional ULN
• Creatinine clearance > 30 ml/min
• Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patients on effective anti-retroviral therapy with undetectable viral load within 6 months are eligible for this trial
• For patients with evidence of chronic hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection, the HBV viral load must be undetectable on suppressive therapy, if indicated
• Patients with a history of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection must have been treated and cured. For patients with HCV infection who are currently on treatment, they are eligible if they have an undetectable HCV viral load
• Patients with treated brain metastases are eligible if follow-up brain imaging after central nervous system (CNS)-directed therapy shows no evidence of progression. The patient must be off steroids and clinically stable
• Female patients of childbearing potential must have a negative urine or serum pregnancy test within 72 hours prior to receiving the first dose of study medication. If the urine test is positive or cannot be confirmed as negative, a serum pregnancy test will be required
• The effects of peposertib (M3814) and liposomal doxorubicin on the developing human fetus are unknown and there is the potential for teratogenic or abortifacient effects. For this reason, women and men of child-bearing potential must agree to use adequate contraception (hormonal or barrier method of birth control; abstinence) prior to study entry, for the duration of study treatment, and for 6 months after completion of peposertib (M3814) administration. Should a woman become pregnant or suspect she is pregnant while she or her partner is participating in this study, she should inform her treating physician immediately. Because there is an unknown but potential risk for adverse events in nursing infants secondary to treatment of the mother with peposertib (M3814), breastfeeding should be discontinued if the mother is treated with peposertib (M3814)
• Patients with a prior or concurrent malignancy whose natural history or treatment does not have the potential to interfere with the safety or efficacy assessment of the investigational regimen are eligible for this trial
• Patients with known history or current symptoms of cardiac disease, or history of treatment with cardiotoxic agents, should have a clinical risk assessment of cardiac function using the New York Heart Association Functional Classification. To be eligible for this trial, patients should be class 2B or better
• Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent document. Participants with impaired decision-making capacity (IDMC) who have a legally-authorized representative (LAR) and/or family member available will also be eligible
• Archival formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tissue collected within the past 36 months prior to registration must be available for submission for deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)/ribonucleic acid (RNA) analysis
• Patients are excluded from the dose-escalation phase of the study if they are eligible for any available therapies known to confer clinical benefit
• Inability to swallow and/or absorb oral medication (patients with a drainage peg are ineligible)
• Patients may not have received prior anthracyclines (doxorubicin or pegylated liposomal doxorubicin) for treatment of their ovarian cancer
• Patients who have not recovered from adverse events due to prior anti-cancer therapy (i.e., have residual toxicities > grade 1) with the exception of alopecia, thyroid dysfunction, or neuropathy
• Patients who are receiving any other investigational agents within 28 days prior to start of treatment
• History of allergic reactions attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to peposertib (M3814) or pegylated liposomal doxorubicin
• Patients who cannot discontinue concomitant medications or herbal supplements that potentially interact with peposertib (M3814)
• The following categories of medications and herbal supplements must be discontinued prior to starting study treatment:
• Strong inducers/inhibitors of CYP3A4/5, CYP2C9, and CYP2C19
• Substrates of CYP3A4/5, CYP1A2, and CYP2B6 with a narrow therapeutic index
• Use caution with other substrates of CYP3A4/5, CYP1A2, CYP2B6 and substrates of P-gp, BCRP, OCT1, OATP1B1, and OATP1B3 with a narrow therapeutic index. Close monitoring is advised
• Because the lists of these agents are constantly changing, it is important to regularly consult a frequently-updated medical reference. As part of the enrollment/informed consent procedures, the patient will be counseled on the risk of interactions with other agents, and what to do if new medications need to be prescribed or if the patient is considering a new over-the-counter medicine or herbal product. Patient Drug Interactions Handout and Wallet Card) should be provided to patients
• Patients who cannot discontinue concomitant proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs). Patients may confer with the study doctor to determine if such medications can be discontinued. These must be discontinued >= 5 days prior to study treatment. Patients do not need to discontinue calcium carbonate
• Patients receiving sorivudine or any chemically related analogues (such as brivudine) are excluded
• Patients who have received a live attenuated vaccine within 30 days of dosing with peposertib (M3814)
• Patients with uncontrolled intercurrent illness, including but not limited to ongoing or active infection
• Patients with psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements
• Pregnant women are excluded from this study because peposertib (M3814) is DNA-PK inhibitor agent with the potential for teratogenic or abortifacient effects. Because there is an unknown but potential risk for adverse events in nursing infants secondary to treatment of the mother with peposertib (M3814), breastfeeding should be discontinued if the mother is treated with peposertib (M3814). These potential risks may also apply to other agents used in this study
• Patients with significant (uncontrolled) cardiac conduction abnormalities are excluded

• Patients must have histologically-confirmed atypical hyperplasia (AH) or lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) documented by breast pathology report at any time in the past. Patients with borderline breast lesions and pleomorphic LCIS are also eligible
• Patients must be women at least 35 and no more than 74 years of age at registration, since the Breast Cancer Surveillance Consortium (BCSC) risk calculator is valid only for this age range
• Both pre/perimenopausal and postmenopausal women are eligible
• Patients must be able to read and write in English or Spanish since study questionnaires and educational materials are only available in English and Spanish
• Baseline questionnaires must be completed prior to patient registration
• The S1904 Patient Contact form must be completed prior to patient registration
• Patients must be able to access the internet and receive email or text messages. This is required to access study materials and receive email/text message reminders from the S1904 Study Team at Columbia University Irving Medical Center (CUIMC). The patient decision aid, RealRisks, is accessible via smartphones, tablets, or personal computers. If patients do not own these devices, local study personnel will provide resources for patients to access RealRisks via computer kiosks or tablets in clinic waiting rooms or public locations, such as community centers or public libraries
• Patients and healthcare providers must be informed of the investigational nature of this study and must sign and give written informed consent in accordance with institutional and federal guidelines
• As a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the system
• IMPLEMENTATION: Providers who enrolled in S1904 at Group 2 (intervention) recruitment center and consented to future contact are eligible to participate in the interviews
• IMPLEMENTATION EVALUATION: Patients who registered to S1904 at a Group 2 (Intervention) Recruitment Center and consented to be contacted for future research are eligible to participate in the interviews
• Recruitment Centers must be National Clinical Trials Network (NCTN), National Cancer Institute Community Oncology Research Program (NCORP) or Minority Underserved (MU)-NCORP institutions
• Recruitment Centers must have an active EHR and patient portal used in the outpatient clinics which is common and accessible across all sites belonging to the Recruitment Center
• Recruitment Centers must be willing to allow the S1904 study team access to the site's application program interface (API) for integration of the study materials (standard educational materials and decision support tools) into the EHR and patient portal. (NOTE: Both Group 1 (control) and Group 2 (intervention) recruitment centers may access the standard educational materials via the patient portal or uniform resource locator (URL)/website)
• Recruitment centers must see at least 50 AH and/or LCIS patients per year
• Recruitment centers must identify a lead principal investigator (PI) to facilitate recruitment and retention of patients and healthcare providers and to participate in quarterly stakeholder meetings/conference calls
• Recruitment centers must be willing to register at about 16 patients and 5 healthcare providers to the study
• Recruitment Centers must be willing to submit monthly screening logs to CUIMC
• Providers must regularly see patients with AH or LCIS at an approved recruitment center
• Providers must be willing to provide informed consent and complete an online baseline questionnaire
• Providers who will register patients must be registered members of a Cooperative Group
• Providers who register patients to S1904 must be willing to see those same patients for their 6-month study visits, as the provider intervention tools require that the "treating investigator" as designated in OPEN and the provider at the 6-month study visit be the same
• Patients must not have a history of invasive breast cancer or ductal carcinoma in situ
• Patients must not have prior or current use of selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs) or aromatase inhibitors (AIs)
• NOTE: The following are approved SERMS and AIs, however, the study is not limited to these.
• SERMs: tamoxifen, raloxifene
• AIs: anastrozole, exemestane, letrozole
• Patients must not be currently taking hormone replacement therapy
• Patients must not have a history of bilateral mastectomies or breast implants since the risk calculator is not applicable to these women
• Patients must not be pregnant or lactating
• Premenopausal patients must not have a history of thromboembolism, since it is a contraindication to tamoxifen. Tamoxifen is the only Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved drug for breast cancer chemoprevention among high-risk premenopausal women, whereas postmenopausal women are eligible for both SERMs and AIs

• STEP 0
•Patient must have an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status (PS) of 0-2 (PS 3 allowed if secondary to pain)
• STEP 0
•Patient must have newly diagnosed multiple myeloma (MM) by International Myeloma Working Group (IMWG) criteria
• STEP 0
•Patient must agree to register to the mandatory REVLIMID Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (RevREMS) program and be willing and able to comply with the requirements of RevREMS
• STEP 0
•Patient must be able to undergo diagnostic bone marrow aspirate following preregistration.
• NOTE: Bone marrow aspirate specimen must be submitted to Adaptive Biotechnologies for clonoSEQ Assay
• NOTE: Adaptive Biotechnologies will release results to the diagnostic Portal from the Clonality (ID) test within fourteen (14) days of receipt and reconciliation of fresh bone marrow specimen to the submitting institution
• STEP 1
•Patient must meet all eligibility criteria in STEP 0 with exception of allergy requirement
• STEP 1
•Institution must have received the Clonality (ID) test results from Adaptive Biotechnologies and dominant sequences were identified
• STEP 1
•Patient must have standard risk MM as defined by the Revised International Staging System (RISS) stage I or II
• NOTE: R-ISS stage is based on serum beta2 microglobulin, albumin and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) levels along with presence of chromosomal abnormalities (CA) detected by interphase fluorescent in situ hybridization (iFISH). Presence of del(17p), t(4;14), and/or t(14;16) is considered high risk and absence of these, including any other findings, are standard risk
• R-ISS stage
• Stage I: ISS stage I [beta2 macroglobulin < 3.5 mg/L, albumin > 3.5 g/dL] AND standard-risk CA AND normal LDH
• Stage II: Not R-ISS stage I or III
• Stage III: ISS stage III [beta2 macroglobulin > 5.5 mg/L] AND high-risk CA OR high LDH (> upper limit of normal) [patients with stage III are ineligible]
• STEP 1
•Patient must have measurable or evaluable disease as defined by having one or more of the following, obtained within 28 days prior to registration:
• >= 1 g/dL monoclonal protein (M-protein) on serum protein electrophoresis
• >= 200 mg/24 hours of monoclonal protein on a 24-hour urine protein electrophoresis
• Involved free light chain >= 10 mg/dL or >= 100 mg/L AND abnormal serum immunoglobulin kappa to lambda free light chain ratio (< 0.26 or > 1.65)
• Monoclonal bone marrow plasmacytosis >= 30% (evaluable disease)
• STEP 1
•Patients must have a serum protein electrophoresis (SPEP), urine protein electrophoresis (UPEP), and serum free light chain (FLC) assay performed within 28 days prior to registration. In addition, a bone marrow biopsy and/or aspirate is required within 28 days if bone marrow is being followed for response
• NOTE: UPEP (on a 24-hour collection) is required, no substitute method is acceptable. Urine must be followed monthly if the baseline urine M-spike is >= 200 mg/24 hr. Please note that if both serum and urine M-components are present, both must be followed in order to evaluate response
• NOTE: The serum free light chain test is required to be done if the patient does not have measurable disease in the serum or urine. Measurable disease in the serum is defined as having a serum M-spike >= 1 g/dL. Measurable disease in the urine is defined as having a urine M-spike >= 200 mg/24 hr
• STEP 1
•Calculated creatinine clearance > 30 mL/min (obtained =< 14 days prior to Step 1 registration)
• STEP 1
•Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1000/mm^3 (obtained =< 14 days prior to Step 1 registration)
• STEP 1
•Untransfused platelet count >= 75,000/mm^3 (obtained =< 14 days prior to Step 1 registration)
• STEP 1
•Hemoglobin >= 8.0 g/dL (obtained =< 14 days prior to Step 1 registration)
• STEP 1
•Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x ULN (institutional upper limit of normal) (obtained =< 14 days prior to Step 1 registration)
• STEP 1
•Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) =< 3 x ULN (obtained =< 14 days prior to Step 1 registration)
• STEP 1
•Patient must have received no more than one cycle (28 days or less) of prior chemotherapy and no more than 160 mg of prior dexamethasone (or equivalent dose of prednisone) for treatment of symptomatic myeloma. Patient must not have been exposed to daratumumab for treatment of symptomatic myeloma. Prior radiation therapy to symptomatic lesions is allowed provided there are no residual toxicity related to radiation and blood counts meet the study requirements. Radiation treatment must be completed at least 14 days prior to Step 1 registration
• STEP 1
•Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patients on effective anti-retroviral therapy with undetectable viral load within 6 months of randomization are eligible for this trial
• STEP 1
•For patients with evidence of chronic hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection, the HBV viral load must be undetectable on suppressive therapy, if indicated
• STEP 1
•Patients with a history of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection must have been treated and cured. For patients with HCV infection who are currently on treatment, they are eligible if they have an undetectable HCV viral load
• STEP 1
•Patients with a prior or concurrent malignancy whose natural history or treatment does not have the potential to interfere with the safety or efficacy assessment of the investigational regimen are eligible for this trial
• STEP 1
•Patients with known history or current symptoms of cardiac disease, or history of treatment with cardiotoxic agents, should have a clinical risk assessment of cardiac function using the New York Heart Association Functional Classification. To be eligible for this trial, patients should be class 2B or better. Patients must not have evidence of current uncontrolled cardiovascular conditions, including hypertension, cardiac arrhythmias, congestive heart failure, unstable angina, or myocardial infarction within 6 months prior to Step 1 registration
• STEP 1
•Patient may have a history of current or previous deep vein thrombosis (DVT) or pulmonary embolism (PE) but must be willing to take some form of anti-coagulation as prophylaxis if they are not currently on full-dose anticoagulation
• STEP 1
•Patients with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) must have FEV1 testing done within 28 days prior to Step 1 registration and the forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) must be > 50% of predicted normal
• STEP 2
•Institution must have received Tracking (MRD) test results from Adaptive Biotechnologies
• STEP 2
•Patient must have completed the Step 1 Induction phase of this protocol without experiencing progression
• STEP 2
•Patient must be registered to Step 2 within 8 weeks of completing Step 1 Induction Treatment, counting from last day of completion of last cycle
• STEP 2
•Patient must have an ECOG performance status (PS) of 0-2 (PS 3 allowed if secondary to pain)
• STEP 2
•Any adverse event(s) related to Step 1 Induction Treatment must have resolved to grade 2 or less
• STEP 2
•Hemoglobin >= 8 g/dL (obtained within 14 days prior to Step 2 randomization)
• STEP 2
•Platelet count >= 50,000/mm^3 (obtained within 14 days prior to Step 2 randomization)
• STEP 2
•Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1000/mm^3 (obtained within 14 days prior to Step 2 randomization)
• STEP 2
•Calculated creatinine clearance >= 30 mL/min (obtained within 14 days prior to Step 2 randomization)
• STEP 2
•Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x ULN (Institutional upper limit of normal) (obtained within 14 days prior to Step 2 randomization)
• STEP 2
•ALT and AST < 3 x ULN (obtained within 14 days prior to Step 2 randomization)
• STEP 0
•Patient must not have any known allergies, hypersensitivity, or intolerance to corticosteroids, monoclonal antibodies or human proteins, or their excipients (refer to respective package inserts or Investigator's Brochure), or known sensitivity to mammalian-derived products
• STEP 1
•Women must not be pregnant or breast-feeding due to the potential harm and teratogenic effects to an unborn fetus and possible risk for adverse events in nursing infants with the treatment regimens being used. All females of childbearing potential must have a blood test or urine study with a sensitivity of at least 25 mIU/mL within 10-14 days prior to Step 1 registration to rule out pregnancy and again within 24 hours prior to the first dose of lenalidomide. Females of childbearing potential must also agree to ongoing pregnancy testing while on protocol treatment. A female of childbearing potential is defined as any woman, regardless of sexual orientation or whether they have undergone tubal ligation, who meets the following criteria:
• Has achieved menarche at some point,
• Has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or
• Has not been naturally postmenopausal (amenorrhea following cancer therapy does not rule out childbearing potential) for at least 24 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 24 consecutive months)
• STEP 1
•Women of childbearing potential must not expect to conceive children by using accepted and effective method(s) of contraception (for this protocol defined as the use of TWO acceptable methods of birth control, one highly effective method and one additional effective method AT THE SAME TIME for 1) at least 28 days before starting protocol treatment; 2) while participating in the study; 3) during dose interruptions; and 4) for at least 3 months days after the last dose of protocol treatment) OR by practicing true abstinence from sexual intercourse for the duration of their participation in the study (periodic abstinence [e.g., calendar, ovulation, symptothermal, post-ovulation methods] and withdrawal are not acceptable methods of contraception). Men must not expect to father children by practicing true abstinence from sexual intercourse for the duration of their participation in the study (periodic abstinence [e.g., calendar, ovulation, symptothermal, post-ovulation methods] and withdrawal are not acceptable methods of contraception) OR use a latex condom during sexual contact with a female of child bearing potential while participating in the study and for at least 3 months after the last dose of protocol treatment even if they have had a successful vasectomy. Men must also agree to abstain from donating sperm while on study treatment and for 3 months after the last dose of protocol treatment even if they have had a successful vasectomy. Both women and men must both agree to abstain from donating blood during study participation and for at least 28 days after the last dose of protocol treatment
• STEP 1
•Patient must not have peripheral neuropathy >= grade 2 on clinical examination or grade 1 with pain at time of Step 1 registration
• STEP 1
•Patient must not have any serious medical or psychiatric illness that could, in the investigator's opinion, potentially interfere with the completion of treatment according to this protocol
• STEP 1
•Patient must not have moderate or severe persistent asthma within the past 2 years, or uncontrolled asthma of any classification
• NOTE: Patients who currently have controlled intermittent asthma or controlled mild persistent asthma are allowed to register
• STEP 1
•Patient must not receive any other concurrent chemotherapy, or any ancillary therapy considered investigational while on this protocol
• NOTE: Bisphosphonates are considered to be supportive care rather than therapy, and are thus allowed while on protocol treatment
• STEP 2
•Patient must not have received any non-protocol therapy outside of the assigned Step 1 Induction treatment including stem cell transplant
• STEP 2
•Women must not be pregnant or breast-feeding due to the potential harm and teratogenic effects to an unborn fetus and possible risk for adverse events in nursing infants with the treatment regimens being used. All females of childbearing potential must have a blood test or urine study with a sensitivity of at least 25 mIU/mL within 10-14 days prior to Step 2 randomization to rule out pregnancy and again within 24 hours prior to the first dose of lenalidomide. Females of childbearing potential must also agree to ongoing pregnancy testing while on protocol treatment. A female of childbearing potential is defined as any woman, regardless of sexual orientation or whether they have undergone tubal ligation, who meets the following criteria:
• Has achieved menarche at some point,
• Has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or
• Has not been naturally postmenopausal (amenorrhea following cancer therapy does not rule out childbearing potential) for at least 24 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 24 consecutive months).
• STEP 2
•Women of childbearing potential must not expect to conceive children by using accepted and effective method(s) of contraception (for this protocol defined as the use of TWO acceptable methods of birth control, one highly effective method and one additional effective method AT THE SAME TIME for 1) at least 28 days before starting protocol treatment; 2) while participating in the study; 3) during dose interruptions; and 4) for at least 3 months days after the last dose of protocol treatment) OR by practicing true abstinence from sexual intercourse for the duration of their participation in the study (periodic abstinence [e.g., calendar, ovulation, symptothermal, post-ovulation methods] and withdrawal are not acceptable methods of contraception). Men must not expect to father children by practicing true abstinence from sexual intercourse for the duration of their participation in the study (periodic abstinence [e.g., calendar, ovulation, symptothermal, post-ovulation methods] and withdrawal are not acceptable methods of contraception) OR use a latex condom during sexual contact with a female of child bearing potential while participating in the study and for at least 3 months after the last dose of protocol treatment even if they have had a successful vasectomy. Men must also agree to abstain from donating sperm while on study treatment and for 3 months after the last dose of protocol treatment even if they have had a successful vasectomy. Both women and men must both agree to abstain from donating blood during study participation and for at least 28 days after the last dose of protocol treatment

• Patients with newly diagnosed stages 2
•4 diffuse anaplastic Wilms tumor must be enrolled on AREN03B2 and have received an initial risk assignment showing DAWT (if anaplasia first identified at diagnostic, pre-treatment nephrectomy or biopsy) or a delayed nephrectomy classification showing DAWT (if anaplasia first noted at delayed nephrectomy) prior to enrollment on AREN1921. Prior enrollment on AREN03B2 is not an eligibility requirement for patients with relapsed favorable histology Wilms tumor.
• Patients must be =< 30 years old at study enrollment
• Patients with the following diagnoses are eligible for this study:
• Newly diagnosed stages 2
•4 diffuse anaplastic Wilms tumor as confirmed by central review
• Favorable histology Wilms tumor at first relapse. Relapsed FHWT patients must have previously achieved remission for their initial FHWT diagnosis to be eligible for this study. The relapse risk groups are defined as follows, regardless of radiation therapy:
• Standard-Risk relapse: Patients who received two chemotherapy agents for frontline therapy; primarily actinomycin D and vincristine
• High-Risk relapse: Patients who received three chemotherapy agents for frontline therapy; primarily vincristine, actinomycin D and doxorubicin or vincristine, actinomycin D and irinotecan
• Very High-Risk relapse: Patients who received four or more chemotherapy agents as part of initial therapy; primarily regimen M or its variations
• Patients with newly diagnosed DAWT must have had histologic verification of the malignancy. For relapsed FHWT patients, biopsy to prove recurrence is encouraged, but not required
• Note: For relapsed FHWT patients, an institutional pathology report confirming favorable histology Wilms tumor (from relapse, if available, or from original diagnosis) must be available for upload prior to initiation of protocol therapy
• Patients with newly diagnosed Stages 2
•4 diffuse anaplastic Wilms tumor must be enrolled on AREN1921 within 2 weeks of the tumor-directed surgery or biopsy procedure that first confirms a diagnosis of DAWT, whether at initial diagnostic procedure or delayed nephrectomy (such surgery/biopsy is day 0). For patients who received prior therapy for presumed favorable histology Wilms tumor, later confirmed to have diffuse anaplastic Wilms tumor at subsequent review of the initial biopsy
• Patients with newly diagnosed DAWT who undergo upfront nephrectomy must have at least 1 lymph node sampled prior to study enrollment
• Patients must have a performance status corresponding to Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) scores of 0, 1 or 2. Use Karnofsky for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky for patients =< 16 years of age
• Patients must have a life expectancy of >= 8 weeks
• Diffuse Anaplastic Wilms Tumor: Patients with diffuse anaplastic histology must have had no prior systemic therapy, except in the following situations:
• Patients with diffuse anaplastic Wilms tumor who received no more than 12 weeks of pre nephrectomy chemotherapy for what was originally presumed to be favorable histology Wilms tumor, subsequently confirmed to be diffuse anaplastic Wilms tumor at delayed nephrectomy
• Patients with diffuse anaplastic Wilms tumor who received no more than 6 weeks of chemotherapy following upfront biopsy, initiated within 14 days of biopsy, for presumed favorable histology Wilms tumor based on institutional review, but subsequently corrected to diffuse anaplastic Wilms tumor based on the AREN03B2 initial risk assignment results (if available per current version of AREN03B2)
• Treatment consisting of vincristine/doxorubicin/cyclophosphamide initiated on an emergent basis and within allowed timing as described
• Note: Patients who received prior therapy for presumed favorable histology Wilms tumor, later identified to have diffuse anaplastic Wilms tumor as per above, must begin study treatment starting at cycle 3 (week 7) of regimen UH 3. Patients who received emergency radiation to preserve organ function are eligible as noted. Patients who received radiation as part of standard of care for presumed newly diagnosed favorable histology Wilms tumor, along with chemotherapy as noted above, prior to identification of diffuse anaplasia, are also eligible
• Relapsed Favorable Histology Wilms Tumor: Patients must not have received prior chemotherapy for their relapsed favorable histology Wilms tumor diagnosis. In addition, patients must have fully recovered from the acute toxic effects of all prior chemotherapy, immunotherapy, or radiotherapy prior to entering this study
• Myelosuppressive chemotherapy: Must not have received within 2 weeks of entry onto this study
• Radiation therapy (RT): >= 2 weeks (wks) must have elapsed for local palliative RT (small port); >= 6 months must have elapsed if prior craniospinal RT or if >= 50% radiation of pelvis; >= 6 wks must have elapsed if other substantial bone marrow (BM) radiation. Patients with relapsed favorable histology Wilms tumor who received emergency radiation to preserve organ function are eligible and do not need to washout with the above criteria
• Patients may not be receiving any other investigational agents (within 4 weeks prior to study enrollment)
• Peripheral absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 750/uL (performed within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Platelet count >= 75,000/uL (transfusion independent) (performed within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Hemoglobin >= 8.0 g/dL (may receive red blood cell [RBC] transfusions) (performed within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Patients with high-risk or very high-risk relapsed FHWT who will be treated with regimen ICE/Cyclo/Topo, must have renal function assessed by creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and meet the following requirement:
• Creatinine clearance or radioisotope GFR >= 60 mL/min/1.73 m^2 (performed within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Patients diagnosed with stage 2-4 DAWT or standard risk relapsed FHWT, who will be treated with regimen UH 3, may either obtain a creatinine clearance, radioisotope GFR (meeting the above criteria of GFR >= 60 mL/min/1.73 m^2), or an adequate serum creatinine as per the following table:
• Age: Maximum Serum Creatinine (mg/dL)
• 1 month to < 6 months: 0.4 (male and female)
• 6 months to < 1 year: 0.5 (male and female)
• 1 to < 2 years: 0.6 (male and female)
• 2 to < 6 years: 0.8 (male and female)
• 6 to < 10 years: 1 (male and female)
• 10 to < 13 years: 1.2 (male and female)
• 13 to < 16 years: 1.5 (male), 1.4 (female)
• >= 16 years: 1.7 (male), 1.4 (female)
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age or direct bilirubin =< ULN for patients whose total bilirubin > 1.5 x ULN (performed within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT) (aspartate aminotransferase [AST]) or serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT) (alanine aminotransferase [ALT]) < 2.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age or =< 5 x ULN for patients with liver metastases (performed within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Shortening fraction of >= 27% by echocardiogram, or ejection fraction of >= 50% by radionuclide angiogram (obtained within 21 days prior to enrollment and start of protocol therapy)
• Patients with a history of bilateral Wilms tumor (synchronous or metachronous)
• Patients with any uncontrolled, intercurrent illness including, but not limited to, ongoing or active infection, or symptomatic congestive heart failure (defined as grade 2 or higher heart failure per Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events [CTCAE] version 5.0)
• Relapsed FHWT patients who did not receive frontline chemotherapy (e.g., very low risk FHWT initially observed without chemotherapy) or received only one chemotherapy agent for frontline therapy
• For patients with high-risk or very high-risk relapsed FHWT:
• Patients with renal tubular acidosis (RTA) as evidenced by serum bicarbonate < 16 mmol/L and serum phosphate =< 2 mg/dL (or < 0.8 mmol/L) without supplementation
• For stages 2-4 DAWT and standard-risk relapsed FHWT patients:
• Chronic inflammatory bowel disease and/or bowel obstruction
• Concomitant use of St. John's wort, which cannot be stopped prior to the start of trial treatment
• Female patients who are pregnant since fetal toxicities and teratogenic effects have been noted for several of the study drugs. A pregnancy test is required for female patients of childbearing potential
• Lactating females who plan to breastfeed their infants
• Sexually active patients of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of their study participation

• Pre-registration Eligibility Criteria (Step 0)
• Submission of bone marrow aspirate and peripheral blood for MRD analysis is mandatory prior to registration; the bone marrow sample should be from the first aspiration (i.e. first pull). Aspirate needle should be redirected if needed to get first pull bone marrow aspirate. It should be initiated as soon as possible after pre-registration. The specimens should be sent to the HEME Biobank.
• Lumbar Puncture (Spinal Tap) and Intrathecal Methotrexate:
• Patients may receive the day 1 of course IA dose of intrathecal (IT) methotrexate during the prior-to-registration lumbar puncture (or the venous line placement) to avoid a second lumbar puncture. If the dose is administered prior to registration, then systemic chemotherapy must begin within 7 days of this IT chemotherapy.
• Registration Eligibility Criteria (Step 1)
• Morphologic diagnosis of precursor B-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) based on World Health Organization (WHO) criteria. Patients with Burkitt lymphoma/leukemia are not eligible.
• CD22-positive disease defined as CD22 expression by >= 20% of lymphoblasts by local hematopathology evaluation.
• Philadelphia chromosome/BCR-ABL1-negative ALL by cytogenetics, fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH), and/or polymerase chain reaction (PCR). If any test is positive for Philadelphia chromosome/BCR-ABL1, then the patient is ineligible.
• No active central nervous system (CNS) leukemia (i.e. only CNS-1 disease allowed). Active CNS leukemia is defined as morphologic evidence of lymphoblasts in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), use of CNS-directed local treatment for active disease within 28 days prior to registration, symptomatic CNS leukemia (i.e. cranial nerve palsies or other significant neurological dysfunction) within the 28 days prior to registration, and/or known asymptomatic parenchymal CNS mass lesions; see below for additional guidance. Prophylactic intrathecal medication alone is not an exclusion.
• Categories of CNS Involvement for CNS Evaluation Prior to Registration:
• CNS 1: CSF has < 5 WBC/uL with cytospin negative for blasts; or >= 10 red blood cell (RBC)/uL with cytospin negative for blasts.
• CNS 2: CSF has < 5 WBC/uL with cytospin positive for blasts; or >= 10 RBC/uL with cytospin positive for blasts; or >= 10 RBC/uL, WBC/uL >= 5 but less than Steinherz/Bleyer algorithm with cytospin positive for blasts (see below).
• CNS 3: CSF has >= 5 WBC/uL with cytospin positive for blasts; or >= 10 RBC/uL, >= 5 WBC/uL and positive by Steinherz/Bleyer algorithm (see below); or clinical signs of CNS leukemia (such as facial nerve palsy, brain/eye involvement or hypothalamic syndrome). Steinherz/Bleyer Method of Evaluating Initial Traumatic Lumbar Punctures:
• If the patient has leukemia cells in the peripheral blood and the lumbar puncture is traumatic and contains >= 5 WBC/uL with blasts, the following algorithm should be used to define CNS disease: CSF WBC/CSF RBC > 2 x (Blood WBC/Blood RBC count)
• Patients with known or suspected testicular involvement by leukemia are allowed provided that the patient receives concomitant scrotal/testicular radiotherapy.
• Unilateral or bilateral testicular enlargement should be assessed by ultrasound or other imaging technique. Biopsy is recommended if clinical findings are equivocal or suggestive of hydrocele or a non-leukemic mass, but further assessments are per treating physician discretion.
• Not pregnant and not nursing.
• This study involves agents that have known genotoxic, mutagenic, and teratogenic effects. Therefore, for women of childbearing potential only, a negative pregnancy test done =< 7 days prior to registration is required.
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status: 0-2
• No unstable cardiac disease such as myocardial infarction, angina pectoris, uncontrolled heart failure, or uncontrolled cardiac arrhythmia within 6 months of registration.
• No impaired cardiac function, defined as left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) < 45% or New York Heart Association (NYHA) stage III or IV congestive heart failure (CHF).
• Patients with known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection are eligible if they have been on effective antiretroviral therapy with an undetectable viral load tested within 6 months of registration.
• Patients with hepatitis B virus (HBV) are eligible only if they meet all the following:
• On HBV-suppressive therapy.
• No evidence of active virus.
• No evidence of HBV-related liver damage.
• Patients with hepatitis C virus (HCV) are eligible only if they meet all the following:
• Successfully completed complete-eradication therapy with undetectable viral load.
• No evidence of HCV-related liver damage.
• No history of clinically relevant neurologic disorder such as epilepsy, seizure, aphasia, stroke, severe brain injury, structural brain abnormality, benign brain tumor, dementia, Parkinson's disease, movement disorder, cerebellar disease, or other significant CNS abnormalities.
• No prior additional malignancy (i.e. in addition to ALL) except adequately treated basal- or squamous-cell skin cancer, in situ cervical cancer, stage I or II cancer from which the patient is currently in complete remission, or any other cancer from which the patient has been disease-free for >= 2 years.
• No history of clinically significant ventricular arrhythmia, unexplained non-vasovagal syncope, or chronic bradycardic states such as sinoatrial block or higher degree of atrioventricular block unless a permanent pacemaker has been implanted.
• No history of chronic liver disease, including cirrhosis.
• No history of sinusoidal occlusion syndrome/veno-occlusive disease of the liver.
• No uncontrolled infection or recent history (within 4 months prior to registration) of deep tissue infections such as fasciitis or osteomyelitis.
• Total bilirubin, serum =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN)*
• Except in the event of: 1) Gilbert disease, in which case total bilirubin must be =< 2 x ULN, or 2) elevated bilirubin believed by investigator to be due to leukemic infiltration, in which case total bilirubin must be =< 2 x ULN.
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)/alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 2.5 x ULN
• Creatinine, serum =< 1.5 ULN OR creatinine clearance >= 40 mL/min
• QT interval by Fridericia's correction formula (QTcF) =< 470 msec
• Cohort 1 Patients Only
• Age >= 60 years.
• No prior treatment for ALL except a single dose of intrathecal chemotherapy, corticosteroids, hydroxyurea, and/or leukapheresis to reduce peripheral blast count and prevent ALL complications. Allowed therapy may be administered for no more than 14 days and must be completed >= 24 hours prior to the initiation of protocol therapy.
• No plan for allogeneic or autologous hematopoietic cell transplantation (HCT).
• Cohort 2 Patients Only:
• Age >= 18 years.
• Relapsed or refractory disease in salvage 1 or 2.
• No isolated extramedullary relapse.
• Prior allogeneic HCT permitted.
• Patients with prior allogeneic HCT must have completed transplantation >= 4 months prior to registration.
• Patients with prior allogeneic HCT must have no evidence of graft-versus-host disease and must have completed immunosuppressive therapy >= 30 days prior to registration.
• Prior treatment with inotuzumab ozogamicin, blinatumomab, other CD22-directed therapy, or other CD19-directed therapy is not allowed.
• Prior treatment with rituximab must be completed >= 7 days prior to registration.
• Prior treatment with other monoclonal antibodies must be completed >= 6 weeks prior to registration.
• Prior treatment for ALL must be completed >= 14 days prior to registration with the following exceptions: intrathecal chemotherapy, hydroxyurea, corticosteroids, 6-mercaptopurine, methotrexate, vincristine, and/or leukapheresis to reduce circulating absolute lymphoblast count to =< 10,000/uL or prevent complications related to ALL are allowed but must be completed >= 24 hours prior to the initiation of protocol therapy.
• Patients should have resolution of any acute non-hematologic toxicities of prior therapy to National Cancer Institute (NCI) Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) version (v)5.0 grade =< 1.
• Peripheral blood absolute lymphoblast count =< 10,000/uL (treatment allowed as above to reduce blast count to =< 10,000/uL)

1. Be willing and able to provide a written Informed Consent Form ("ICF") for the Study. 2. Be > 18 years of age on day of signing ICF. 3. Have histologically confirmed NMIBC CIS via biopsy with/without resected papillary disease (Ta, T1) (high grade) using the 2004 World Health Organization ("WHO") / International Society of Urologic Pathology classification system. The most recent cystoscopy / TURBT must have been performed within 12 weeks of the Study Treatment date to confirm: histology, grade and stage. 4. Intolerant to BCG or considered BCG-Unresponsive, which is at least one of the following:
• At least five of six doses of an initial induction course, plus at least two of three doses of maintenance therapy, or
• At least five of six doses of an initial induction course, plus at least two of six doses of a second induction course. 5. Are not candidates for cystectomy on medical grounds or refuse radical cystectomy. 6. Have an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group ("ECOG") performance score of 0 to 2. 7. Have satisfactory bladder function. Ability to retain Study Drug for a minimum of 60 minutes. 8. Are available for the duration of the Study including follow-up (approximately 15 months). 9. Female patients of childbearing potential must have a negative Human Chorionic Gonadotropin ("HCG") pregnancy test taken during the screening visit and confirmed prior to the Study Treatment. 10. Female patients of childbearing potential must be willing to use 2 methods of birth control (i.e.: oral contraceptive, pills, diaphragm or condoms) or be surgically sterile, or abstain from heterosexual activity for two weeks after the Study Treatment. Patients of childbearing potential are those who have not been surgically sterilized or have not been free from menses for >1 year. 1. Past or current muscle invasive (i.e.: T2, T3, T4) or metastatic urothelial carcinoma. 2. Has concurrent extravesical (i.e.: urethra, ureter, renal pelvis, prostate or prostatic ducts) non-muscle invasive transitional cell carcinoma of the urothelium. (confirmed by staging to exclude extravesical disease, which may include radiological imaging and/or biopsy) within 3 months of enrollment: If previous work up occurred more than 3 months prior to enrollment, staging for extravesical disease must be repeated prior to enrolment in order to determine eligibility. 3. Active gross hematuria. 4. Have a known additional malignancy that is progressing or requires active treatment. Exceptions include basal cell carcinoma of the skin, squamous cell carcinoma of the skin that has undergone potentially curative therapy, in situ cervical cancer or localized prostate cancer under active surveillance with Gleason 6 disease. A history of prostate cancer that was treated with definitive intent (surgically or through radiation therapy) is acceptable, provided that the following criteria are met: Stage T2N0M0 or lower Prostate-Specific Antigen ("PSA") undetectable for 2 years while off androgen deprivation therapy or no more than 2 consecutive rising PSAs. 5. Have a history or current evidence of any condition, therapy, surgery or laboratory abnormality that, in the opinion of the PI, might confound the results of the Study, interfere with the patient's participation in the Study, or is not in the best interest of the patient to participate. 6. Currently receiving treatment with a prohibited concomitant therapy (refer to 12.2.1, Prohibited Medications). 7. Participated in a study with an investigational agent or device within 1 month from the first dose of current Study treatment. 8. Prior treatment with an intravesical chemotherapeutic agent within 1 month of the first dose of current Study Drug, with the exception of a single perioperative dose of chemotherapy immediately post-TURBT (not considered treatment). 9. Have an active infection requiring systemic therapy, including active or intractable Urinary Tract Infection ("UTI"), not resolved prior to the procedure. 10. Has any contraindication to general or spinal anesthesia. 11. Is pregnant or breastfeeding within the projected duration of Study II, starting with the screening visit through to two weeks following the second Ruvidar® (TLD-1433) instillation.

• Safety Lead-In = Male/female ≥ 18 years old
• Phase 3 and Cohort 3: Male/female ≥ 16 years old (where permitted locally)
• Histologically or cytologically confirmed Stage IV CRC that contains BRAF V600E mutation
• Prior systemic treatment in metastatic setting: 0-1 regimens for Safety Lead In; none for Phase 3 and Cohort 3. (Note: Prior adjuvant or neoadjuvant therapy considered metastatic treatment if relapse/metastasis < 6 month from end of adj/neoadjuvant treatment )
• Measurable disease (Phase 3 and Cohort 3)/ Measurable or evaluable disease (Safety Lead-in)
• ECOG PS 0-1
• Adequate organ function
• Tumors that are locally confirmed or unknown MSI-H or dMMR unless participant is ineligible to receive immune checkpoint inhibitors due to a pre-existing medical condition
• Active bacterial or viral infections in 2 weeks prior to starting dosing
• Symptomatic brain metastases

1. Subject has multiple myeloma, 18 years of age or older and subject or legally authorized representative is able to sign the informed consent form. 2. Subject had a subject-specific batch of idecabtagene vicluecel manufactured intended for commercial treatment; however, the final manufactured product was nonconforming and did not meet commercial release criteria. The Sponsor has determined that the nonconforming idecabtagene vicleucel may be released for use under the Expanded Access Protocol. 3. Remanufacturing is deemed not feasible or clinically inappropriate per assessment of the treating physician in discussion with the subject. 4. Subject is clinically stable, has recovered from any prior toxicities prior to receiving lymphodepleting chemotherapy, and has adequate bone marrow function to receive lymphodepleting chemotherapy 5. Females of childbearing potential must: 1. Have a negative pregnancy test as verified by the treating physician within 7 days prior to the first dose of lymphodepleting chemotherapy following institutional testing methodology practices. This applies even if the subject practices true abstinence from heterosexual contact. 2. Either commit to true abstinence from heterosexual contact or agree to use, and be able to comply with, effective contraception without interruption. Contraception methods must include 1 highly effective method from screening until at least 12 months after the lymphodepleting chemotherapy. 3. Agree to abstain from breastfeeding during study participation and for at least 12 months following lymphodepleting chemotherapy. 4. There are insufficient exposure data to provide any recommendation concerning the duration of contraception and the abstaining from breastfeeding following treatment with nonconforming idecabtagene vicluecel. Any decision regarding contraception and breastfeeding after infusion should be discussed with the treating physician. 6. Male subjects must: 1. Practice true abstinence or agree to use a condom during sexual contact with a pregnant female or a female of childbearing potential for at least 12 months after lymphodepleting chemotherapy even if the subject has undergone a successful vasectomy. 2. There are insufficient exposure data to provide any recommendation concerning the duration of contraception following treatment with nonconforming idecabtagene vicluecel. Any decision regarding contraception after infusion should be discussed with the treating physician. Subject must agree to not donate blood, organs, tissue, sperm or semen and egg cells for usage in other individuals for at least 1 year following lymphodepleting chemotherapy. There are insufficient exposure data to provide any recommendation concerning the duration of refraining from tissue donation following treatment with nonconforming idecabtagene vicluecel. Therefore, participants treated with nonconforming idecabtagene vicluecel should not donate blood, organs, tissues, and cells for transplantation. 1. Subject has a hypersensitivity to the active substance or to any of the excipients. 2. Subject should not experience a significant worsening in clinical status that would, in the opinion of the treating physician, either increase the risk of AEs associated with lymphodepleting chemotherapy or exclude them from treatment with nonconforming idecabtagene vicluecel. 3. Subject has any significant medical condition, laboratory abnormality, or psychiatric illness, sociologic or geographic condition that would prevent the subject from participating in the Expanded Access Protocol, complying with protocol requirements or confound the ability to interpret the data in the Investigator's judgement. 4. Subject has any condition and/or laboratory abnormality that places the subject at unacceptable risk if he/she were to participate in the Expanded Access Protocol based on the Investigator's judgement. 5. Pregnant or nursing women or has intention of becoming pregnant during the study.

• Feasibility phase: patients must be >= 2 years and =< 21 years of age at the time of enrollment
• Efficacy phase: patients must be >= 2 years and =< 25 years of age at the time of enrollment
• All patients > 21 years of age at the time of enrollment must have had initial diagnosis of low-grade glioma by 21 years of age
• Patients must have a body surface area (BSA) of >= 0.5 m^2 at enrollment
• Patients must have eligibility confirmed by rapid central pathology and central molecular screening reviews performed on APEC14B1
• Non-neurofibromatosis type 1 (non-NF1), non-tuberous sclerosis complex (non-TSC) low-grade glioma (LGG) without a BRAFV600E or IDH1 mutation
• Patients must have progressive or recurrent LGG. Note: Biopsy may be at either initial diagnosis or recurrence
• Patients must have measurable disease, defined as having a two-dimensional measurable tumor volume of >= 1 cm^2
• Tumor size will be measured to include both solid and cystic components of the tumor (whether or not tumor is enhancing) + fluid attenuated inversion recovery (FLAIR) signal
• Eligible histologies will include all tumors considered low-grade glioma or low-grade astrocytoma (World Health Organization [WHO] grade 1 and II) by the WHO Classification of Tumors of the Central Nervous System
•4th Edition Revised, with the exception of subependymal giant cell astrocytoma
• Patients with metastatic disease or multiple independent primary LGGs are eligible
• Patients must be progressive or recurrent after having been treated with at least one prior tumor-directed therapy before enrollment
• Patients must have fully recovered from the acute toxic effects of all prior chemotherapy, immunotherapy, or radiotherapy prior to entering this study
• Myelosuppressive chemotherapy: Must not have received within 2 weeks of entry onto this study (4 weeks if prior nitrosourea);
• Biologic (anti-neoplastic agent): At least 7 days since the completion of therapy with a biologic agent;
• Radiation therapy (RT): >= 2 weeks (wks) for local palliative RT (small port); >= 6 months must have elapsed if prior craniospinal RT or if >= 50% radiation of pelvis; >= 6 wks must have elapsed if other substantial bone marrow (BM) radiation;
• Antibodies: >= 21 days must have elapsed from infusion of last dose of antibody, and toxicity related to prior antibody therapy must be recovered to =< grade 1;
• MEK inhibitor or vinblastine: Must not have received treatment with a MEK inhibitor or vinblastine within 6 months of study enrollment
• Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 70 mL/min/1.73 m^ 2 or a serum creatinine based on age/gender as follows (within 7 days prior to enrollment):
• 2 to < 6 years: 0.8 mg/dL (male) 0.8 mg/dL (female)
• 6 to < 10 years: 1 mg/dL (male) 1 mg/dL (female)
• 10 to < 13 years: 1.2 mg/dL (male) 1.2 mg/dL (female)
• 13 to < 16 years: 1.5 mg/dL (male) 1.4 mg/dL (female)
• >= 16 years: 1.7 mg/dL (male) 1.4 mg/dL (female)
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age (within 7 days prior to enrollment) (children with a diagnosis of Gilbert's syndrome will be allowed on study regardless of their total and indirect [unconjugated] bilirubin levels as long as their direct [conjugated] bilirubin is < 3.1 mg/dL)
• Serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase (SGPT) (alanine aminotransferase [ALT]) =< 135 U/L (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Note: For the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT (ALT) has been set to the value of 45 U/L
• Albumin >= 2 g/L (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) >= 53% (or institutional normal; if the LVEF result is given as a range of values, then the upper value of the range will be used) by echocardiogram (within 4 weeks prior to enrollment)
• Corrected QT interval (QTc interval) =< 450 msec by electrocardiogram (EKG) (within 4 weeks prior to enrollment)
• Absolute neutrophil count >= 1,000/uL (unsupported) (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Platelets >= 100,000/uL (unsupported) (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Hemoglobin >= 8 g/dL (may be supported) (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Patients with a known seizure disorder should be stable and should not have experienced a significant increase in seizure frequency within 2 weeks prior to enrollment
• Stable neurological examination for >= 1 week
• HYPERTENSION:
• Patients 2-17 years of age must have a blood pressure that is =< 95th percentile for age, height, and gender at the time of enrollment (with or without the use of anti-hypertensive medications);
• Patients >= 18 years of age must have a blood pressure =< 130/80 mmHg at the time of enrollment (with or without the use of anti-hypertensive medications)
• Note for patients of all ages: Adequate blood pressure can be achieved using medication for the treatment of hypertension
• All patients must have ophthalmology toxicity assessments performed within 4 weeks prior to enrollment
• For all patients, an MRI of the brain (with orbital cuts for optic pathway tumors) and/or spine (depending on the site[s] of primary disease) with and without contrast must be performed within 4 weeks prior to enrollment
• Note: If surgical resection or biopsy is performed at the time of progression or recurrence, a post-operative MRI is required
• Patients must have a performance status corresponding to Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) scores of 0, 1, or 2. Use Karnofsky for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky for patients =< 16 years of age
• Patients must have the ability to swallow whole capsules
• Prior therapy with vinblastine and/or a MEK inhibitor is permitted, with the following exceptions:
• Patients must not have had progressive disease while on therapy with vinblastine or a MEK inhibitor;
• Patients must not have discontinued vinblastine or selumetinib due to toxicity
• Patients with a concurrent malignancy or history of treatment (other than surgery) for another tumor within the last year are ineligible
• Patients with diffuse intrinsic pontine tumors as seen on MRI (> 2/3 of pons involvement on imaging) are not eligible even if biopsy reveals grade I/II histology
• Patients may not be receiving any other investigational agents
• Patients must not have known hypersensitivity to selumetinib, vinblastine, or similar compounds
• CYP3A4 agents: Patients must not have received fluconazole or drugs that are strong inducers or inhibitors of CYP3A4 within 7 days prior to study enrollment
• Patients with any serious medical or psychiatric illness/condition, including substance use disorders or ophthalmological conditions, likely in the judgment of the investigator to interfere or limit compliance with study requirements/treatment
• Patients who, in the opinion of the investigator, are not able to comply with the study procedures are not eligible
• PRE-EXISTING CONDITIONS (CARDIAC):
• Known genetic disorder that increases risk for coronary artery disease. Note: The presence of dyslipidemia in a family with a history of myocardial infarction is not in itself an exclusion unless there is a known genetic disorder documented;
• Symptomatic heart failure
• New York Heart Association (NYHA) class II-IV prior or current cardiomyopathy
• Severe valvular heart disease
• History of atrial fibrillation
• PRE-EXISTING CONDITIONS (OPHTHALMOLOGIC CONDITIONS):
• Current or past history of central serous retinopathy
• Current or past history of retinal vein occlusion or retinal detachment
• Patients with uncontrolled glaucoma
• If checking pressure is clinically indicated, patients with intraocular pressure (IOP) > 22 mmHg or upper limit of normal (ULN) adjusted by age are not eligible
• Any multivitamin containing vitamin E must be stopped prior to study enrollment even if it contains less than 100% of the daily recommended dosing for vitamin E
• Surgery within 2 weeks prior to enrollment, with the exception of a surgical biopsy, placement of a vascular access device or cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) diverting procedure such as endoscopic third ventriculostomy (ETV) and ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt
• Note: Patients must have healed from any prior surgery
• Patients who have an uncontrolled infection are not eligible
• Female patients who are pregnant are not eligible since fetal toxicities and teratogenic effects have been noted for several of the study drugs. A pregnancy test is required for female patients of childbearing potential
• Lactating females who plan to breastfeed their infants
• Sexually active patients of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of their study participation and for 12 weeks after stopping study therapy are not eligible
• Note: Women of child-bearing potential and males with sexual partners who are pregnant or who could become pregnant (i.e., women of child-bearing potential) should use effective methods of contraception for the duration of the study and for 12 weeks after stopping study therapy to avoid pregnancy and/or potential adverse effects on the developing embryo
• All patients and/or their parents or legal guardians must sign a written informed consent
• All institutional, Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and National Cancer Institute (NCI) requirements for human studies must be met

1. Subject and/or LAR must understand and voluntarily sign an informed consent form prior to any study-related assessments/procedures being conducted. 2. Subject has relapsed and/or refractory large B-cell lymphoma and is, per the treating physician assessment, eligible for treatment with lisocabtagene maraleucel per the approved prescribing information. 3. Subject is ≥ 18 years of age at the time of signing the informed consent form. 4. Subject had a specific batch of lisocabtagene maraleucel manufactured intended for commercial treatment; however, the final manufactured product did not meet commercial release criteria. 5. Remanufacturing (eg, repeat leukapheresis and manufacturing) is deemed not feasible or clinically inappropriate per assessment of the treating physician in discussion with the subject. 6. Subject is clinically stable, has recovered from any toxicities prior to receiving lymphodepleting chemotherapy, and has adequate bone marrow function to receive lymphodepleting chemotherapy. The treating physician is advised to contact Medical Monitor in the event there is any concern regarding administration of lymphodepleting chemotherapy. 7. Females of childbearing potential must: 1. Have a negative pregnancy test as verified by the treating physician within 7 days prior to the first dose of lymphodepleting chemotherapy following institutional testing methodology practices. This applies even if the subject practices true abstinence from heterosexual contact. 2. Either commit to true abstinence from heterosexual contact or agree to use, and be able to comply with, effective contraception without interruption. Contraception methods must include 1 highly effective method from screening until at least 12 months after the nonconforming lisocabtagene maraleucel administration. 3. Agree to abstain from breastfeeding during study participation and for at least 12 months following nonconforming lisocabtagene maraleucel administration. 4. There are insufficient exposure data to provide any recommendation concerning the duration of contraception and the abstaining from breastfeeding following treatment with lisocabtagene maraleucel. Any decision regarding contraception and breastfeeding after infusion should be discussed with the treating physician. 8. Male subjects must: 1. Practice true abstinence or agree to use a condom during sexual contact with a pregnant female or a female of childbearing potential for at least 12 months after nonconforming lisocabtagene maraleucel administration even if the subject has undergone a successful vasectomy. 2. There are insufficient exposure data to provide any recommendation concerning the duration of contraception following treatment with lisocabtagene maraleucel. Any decision regarding contraception after infusion should be discussed with the treating physician 9. Subject must agree to not donate blood, organs, tissue, sperm or semen and egg cells for usage in other individuals for at least 1 year following nonconforming lisocabtagene maraleucel administration. 1. Subject has a hypersensitivity to the active substance or to any of the excipients. 2. Subject should not experience a significant worsening in clinical status that would, in the opinion of the treating physician, either increase the risk of adverse events associated with lymphodepleting chemotherapy, or exclude them from treatment with nonconforming lisocabtagene maraleucel. 3. Subject has any significant medical condition, laboratory abnormality, or psychiatric illness, sociologic or geographic condition that would prevent the subject from participating in the Expanded Access Protocol complying with protocol requirements in the Investigator's judgement. 4. Subject has any condition and/or laboratory abnormality that places the subject at unacceptable risk if he/she were to participate in the Expanded Access Protocol based on the Investigator's judgement 5. Pregnant or nursing women or has intention of becoming pregnant during the study. 6. Subjects with central nervous system (CNS)-only involvement by malignancy (note: subjects with secondary CNS involvement are allowed on study). 7. Subject has active hepatitis B, hepatitis C, or human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection at the time of pretreatment evaluation 8. Subject has uncontrolled systemic fungal, bacterial, viral or other infection despite appropriate antibiotics or other treatment at the time of nonconforming lisocabtagene maraleucel administration. 9. Subject has presence of acute or chronic graft-versus-host disease (ie, GVHD) 10. Use of the following: 1. Therapeutic doses of corticosteroids (defined as > 20 mg/day prednisone or equivalent) within 72 hours prior to nonconforming lisocabtagene maraleucel administration. Physiologic replacement, topical, and inhaled steroids are permitted. 2. Low dose chemotherapy (eg, vincristine, rituximab, cyclophosphamide ≤ 300 mg/m2)given after leukapheresis to maintain disease control must be stopped ≥ 7 days prior to lymphodepleting chemotherapy. 3. Cytotoxic chemotherapeutic agents that are not considered lymphotoxic (see below) within 1 week of LD chemotherapy. Oral chemotherapeutic agents, including lenalidomide and ibrutinib, are allowed if at least 3 half-lives have elapsed prior to lymphodepleting chemotherapy. 4. Donor lymphocyte infusions within 6 weeks of nonconforming lisocabtagene maraleucel administration.

•4.1.1. Stage II or III, HER2 negative, ER positive invasive breast cancer in male or female patients. For this study, ER positivity is defined as equal to or greater than 10% ER positivity by immunohistochemistry, regardless of progesterone receptor (PR) status. Patients with PR positive but ER negative cancer are not eligible. HER2 negative status is defined as per the ASCO/CAP 2018 practice guidelines. (i) if patients have synchronous bilateral ER+ breast cancer tissue from both sites should be submitted to Natera to perform ctDNA testing. (ii) patients with multifocal/multicentric tumors are eligible and the largest focus of cancer should be submitted for testing. All tumors must meet pathological criteria for HER2-and ER+ status. (iii) For. patients who received neoadjuvant therapy and have discordant ER and HER2 results between the diagnostic biopsy (pre-treatment) and surgical pathology (post neoadjuvant therapy), the ER+ and HER2- status of the post-treatment specimen determine eligibility. 4.1.2. Currently taking an aromatase inhibitor, or tamoxifen, as adjuvant endocrine therapy and have completed at least 6 months (i.e. 24 weeks), but no more than 7 years with 3 more years planned, of endocrine therapy. Patients may register for the screening phase of the study within the first 6 months of adjuvant endocrine therapy but the first ctDNA testing must occur at, or after, 6 months of endocrine therapy. (i) Adjuvant bisphosphonate therapy is allowed. (ii) LHRH analogues are required for premenopausal patients randomized to receive fulvestrant. 4.1.3. Clinical and pathological high risk for recurrence defined as any one of the following: (i) At least a 15% predicted risk of death within 10 years using ePREDICT V2.1 (https://breast.predict.nhs.uk/tool), or (ii) At least 15% or greater risk of distant metastasis within 10 years using RSPC, (https://tools.genomichealth.com/Tools/RSPCTool.aspx), or (iii) At least 15% or greater risk of distant metastasis within 10 years CTS5 (https://www.cts5-calculator.com) for patients who have completed a minimum of 4 years of adjuvant endocrine therapy, or (iv) Tumor size > 5 cm, regardless of lymph node status, or (v) 1-3 involved axillary lymph nodes and at least one of the following;
• Tumor size > 3 cm,
• High histological grade (e.g. grade 3).
• High genomic risk defined as Oncotype Dx Recurrence Score >26, EndoPredict score >4, Prosigna risk of recurrence score ≥ 60, or Mammaprint high risk. (vi) Patients who have received pre-operative (neoadjuvant) chemotherapy must have either:
• greater than or equal to 3 cm invasive residual cancer regardless of nodal status AND grade 3 disease or RS>26/MammPrint High/Prosigna high/Endopredict high status, or
• greater than or equal to 1 cm invasive residual cancer (ypT1c) and at least 1 positive lymph node (ypN+) AND grade 3 disease, or RS>26, or MammPrint High, or Endopredict high or Prosigna high status. 4.1.4. Patients must have FFPE tissue from the primary tumor available for submission to Natera to perform ctDNA assay (see Appendix B for tissue submission instructions). 4.1.5. Signed and dated informed consent, including willingness to be randomized to standard of care versus fulvestrant + palbociclib. 4.2 Inclusion and exclusion criteria for treatment randomization Inclusion criteria for randomization 4.2.1. ctDNA positivity by the Signatera assay, defined as 2 of the 16 cancer specific markers positive in plasma. 4.2.2. Patients with positive Signatera results obtained in the context of commercial testing, outside of the screening phase of this trial, are also eligible for randomization if they meet other eligibility criteria. 4.2.3. No evidence of metastatic disease on CT scan of the chest, abdomen and pelvis.
• If imaging, after review with a radiologist, is low probability for metastatic disease, patients may proceed to randomization.
• Patients with suspicious but inconclusive imaging results should undergo a diagnostic biopsy, if biopsy is negative patients are eligible for randomization.
• Patients with positive imaging that is conclusive of metastatic disease, or with biopsy proven metastatic disease, are not eligible for randomization. 4.2.4. Pre-menopausal women and male patients must be willing to use an adequate method of contraception for the duration of trial treatment and for 4 additional weeks after completion of treatment in the control arm, and for 2 years after the last dose of fulvestrant, if randomized into the experimental arm. Post-menopausal status is defined as:
• Documented bilateral oophorectomy.
• Age ≥ 60 years.
• Age < 60 years and amenorrhoeic for ≥ 12 consecutive months and FSH and estradiol levels in the post-menopausal range according to the institutional reference range for post-menopausal. Adequate contraception is defined as ONE highly effective form (i.e. abstinence, surgical sterilization through bilateral tubal ligation, vasectomy), or TWO effective forms (e.g. non-hormonal IUD and condom / occlusive cap with spermicidal foam / gel / film / cream / suppository).
•Abstinence is to be interpreted as "true abstinence" for heterosexual intercourse and therefore, "periodic abstinence" (e.g. calendar, symptothermal, post-ovulation methods) and withdrawal (coitus interruptus) are not considered highly effective. Exclusion Criteria 4.1.5. Prior or current treatment with fulvestrant, or current treatment with a CDK4/6 inhibitor, or treatment in the prior 12 months, or participants in the PENELOPE and PALLAS clinical trials. 4.1.6. Patients cannot start participation in another therapeutic clinical trial for breast cancer after enrollment in this trial. 4.1.7. Patients with current or past invasive cancer, other than breast cancer are not eligible, except:
• Adequately treated basal or squamous cell carcinoma of the skin are eligible.
• Cancer survivors of previously diagnosed invasive cancer, who were treated with a curative intent, have no evidence of disease recurrence for 5 years or more, and are considered low risk for future recurrence by the treating physician are also eligible. 4.1.8. Patients with a second HER2 positive or triple negative synchronous breast cancer are not eligible. Exclusion criteria for randomization 4.2.5. Patients with known contraindications to receive fulvestrant and palbociclib or those who are unable to tolerate these drugs are not eligible.
• Absolute neutrophil count less than <1000/mm3; 4.2.6. Any concurrent severe and uncontrolled medical condition that would, in the Investigator' opinion cause unacceptable safety risks or compromise compliance with the protocol including but not limited to:
• Impairment of gastrointestinal (GI) function or GI disease that may significantly alter the absorption of oral medication (e.g. Crohn's disease, ulcerative diseases, uncontrolled chronic nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, malabsorption syndrome, or small bowel resection).
• History of pneumonitis, interstitial lung disease or pulmonary fibrosis.
• Known history of Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) (testing is not mandatory).
• Known active Hepatitis B or Hepatitis C (testing is not mandatory).
• Females who are pregnant or breastfeeding.
• History of bleeding diathesis (i.e. disseminated intravascular coagulation, clotting factor deficiency) that preclude the IM injections of fulvestrant or LHRH agonist as applicable. 4.2.7 Patients taking any CYPC3A4 strong inducers and inhibitors, that cannot be changed.

• Women with an initial pathologically confirmed diagnosis of stage I-III, hormone receptor positive, HER2-neu negative, invasive breast cancer within 18 months prior to enrollment
• Women who have undergone neo-adjuvant chemotherapy who have no residual invasive disease post-surgery are eligible based on an initial pathologically confirmed diagnosis
• Hormone receptor positive is defined as estrogen receptor (ER) and/or progesterone receptor (PR) of > 1%
• HER2-neu negative is defined as 0-1+ by immunohistochemical (IHC) analysis, or non-amplified by fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) analysis
• Patients must have received cancer-directed surgery, and/or completed all other adjuvant therapy, except reconstruction
• Patients must have initiated an endocrine therapy drug within the 6 months prior to registration, OR have received a prescription with stated intent to initiate within 6 weeks after registration
• No history of previous cancer as follows:
• Invasive or non-invasive breast cancer at any time
• Non-breast cancer, within the past 5 years, excluding non-melanoma skin cancer
• Patients must be willing to use a smart phone for study activities
• Patient is NOT to be deemed ineligible during the recruitment process if they do not have a smart phone
• If a participant does not own a smart phone or has limited data or texting capabilities or their smart phone cannot support the Alliance electronic patient reported outcomes (ePRO) survey application (app), a smart phone and service can be provided to the participant at no cost through the Ohio State University (OSU) partnership with Verizon Wireless for the duration of the study activities
• The CRP is ONLY to discuss this option with those patients who self-identify a phone-related barrier to participation, including: lack of a smart phone, insufficient phone plan (minutes/text/data), or a smart phone incompatible with the Alliance ePRO app
• For OSU -provided phones, charges will be paid by the grant through the intervention period. At the end of the 12-month intervention period, patients will be responsible for paying monthly fees, if continued service is desired. The physical phones will belong to the patients at the end of their study activities
• Patients must be willing to use a Pillsy medication event monitoring system for the duration of study participation
• In order to complete the mandatory patient-completed measures, participants must be able to speak and read English

• Subjects with advanced or metastatic solid tumor in subjects whose disease has progressed despite standard therapy, or who has no further standard therapy, or who is unsuitable for available standard treatment options.
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status 0 or 1 with adequate organ function
• Have known PD-L1 status with prior testing by immunohistochemistry and a corresponding combined positive score (CPS) For dose expansion study only:
• Advanced or metastatic gastric cancer, gastroesophageal junction carcinoma, and esophageal adenocarcinoma without further standard therapy or unsuitable for available standard treatment options.
• Must have CLDN18.2-positive tumor expression as determined by the CLDN18.2 IHC assay Exclusion Criteria
• Prior exposure to CLDN18.2 -targeted therapy
• Prior exposure to 4-1BB agonists
• Second malignancy within the last 3 years with the exception of cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma or cutaneous basal cell carcinoma or cervical carcinoma in situ
• Known active or chronic Hepatitis B or Hepatitis C, other hepatitides
• Unstable/active ulcer or digestive tract bleeding within 6 weeks
• Active autoimmune disease requiring systemic treatment within the past 2 years
• Active interstitial lung disease (ILD) or pneumonitis or a history of ILD or pneumonitis requiring treatment
• Known active CNS metastases and/or carcinomatous meningitis. Subjects with previously treated brain metastases may participate provided they are clinically stable and without requirement of steroid treatment for at least 14 days prior to first dose of study treatment;
• New York Heart Association (NYHA) Class 3 or 4 congestive heart failure, severe/unstable angina, myocardial infarction (MI), symptomatic congestive heart failure, cerebrovascular accident, transient ischemic attack (TIA), arterial embolism, pulmonary embolism, percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA), deep vein thrombosis, or coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) in the previous 6 months
• Diagnosis of immunodeficiency such as known active HIV
• Any active infection requiring parenteral treatment

• Histologically confirmed adenocarcinoma of the prostate
• Patients must be considered candidates for prostatectomy as per standard of care
• High-risk patients for recurrent disease, with high risk defined based on one of the following criteria:
• Gleason score 7 and baseline serum prostate specific antigen (PSA) > 20 ng/mL
• Gleason score > 7
• Life expectancy of at least 12 months at screening
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 or 1.
• Adequate hematologic, renal and liver function as evidenced by the following within 4 weeks of day 1:
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) > 1000 / mm3
• HgB > 9.0 gm/dL independent of transfusion
• Platelets > 100,000 / mm3
• Creatinine < 2.0 mg/dL
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST), Alanine transaminase (ALT) < 2.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (ULN)
• Total bilirubin < 2x institutional ULN (NOTE: in subjects with Gilbert's syndrome, if total bilirubin is >2x ULN, measure direct and indirect bilirubin and if direct bilirubin is within normal range, subject may be eligible)
• No known history of HIV 1 and 2, HTLV-1, or active Hepatitis B or Hepatitis C
• Must have adequate tissue (ten 5µm unstained formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded (FFPE) sections containing prostate cancer) remaining from pre-treatment diagnostic prostate biopsy for research purposes
• Patients must be willing to undergo large-volume blood draws (up to 200mL per time point) for the investigational component of this trial
• For those patients who are sexually active, they must be willing to use barrier contraceptive methods during the period of treatment on this trial
• Patients must be informed of the experimental nature of the study and its potential risks, and must sign an IRB-approved written informed consent form indicating such an
• Ability to comply with all study procedures and willingness to remain supine for 120 minutes during imaging
• Small cell or other variant (non-adenocarcinoma) prostate cancer histology
• Prior treatment for prostate cancer, including androgen deprivation therapy (ADT), orchiectomy, antiandrogens, ketoconazole, abiraterone acetate or enzalutamide
• Prior radiation to the prostate
• Patients may not be receiving other investigational agents or be receiving concurrent anticancer therapy other than the treatment-prescribed androgen deprivation therapy
• Treatment with any of the following medications while on study is prohibited, washout period not required except as indicated:
• Systemic corticosteroids (at doses over the equivalent of 10 mg prednisone daily)
•not permitted within 3 months of registration; inhaled, intranasal or topical corticosteroids are acceptable
• PC-SPES
• Herbal supplements that have been shown to modulate testosterone or androgen signaling (e.g. Saw Palmetto) are not allowed while on study
• Megestrol
• Ketoconazole
• 5-α-reductase inhibitors
•patients already taking 5-α-reductase inhibitors prior to 28 days prior to registration may stay on these agents throughout the course of therapy, but these should not be started while patients are on study
• Diethylstilbesterol
• Any other non-study hormonal agent or supplement being used with the intent of cancer treatment
• Major surgery within 4 weeks of registration is prohibited
• Active cardiac disease defined as active angina, symptomatic congestive heart failure, or myocardial infarction within 6 months of registration
• Patients with known psychological or sociological conditions, addictive disorders or family problems, which would preclude compliance with the protocol
• Patients who have undergone splenectomy
• Patients must not have other active malignancies other than non-melanoma skin cancers or carcinoma in situ of the bladder, that have been adequately treated. Subjects with a history of other cancers who have been adequately treated and have been recurrence-free for > 3 years are eligible.
• Any other medical intervention or condition, which, in the opinion of the principle investigator (PI) or treating physician, could compromise patient safety or adherence with the study requirements over the primary 3-6 month treatment period.
• Patients who have concurrent enrollment on other phase I, II, or III investigational treatment studies cannot be actively receiving treatment and the last dose cannot be within 4 weeks.
• Patients who have received a live vaccine within 14 days prior to the first dose of study treatment. Examples of live vaccines include, but are not limited to, the following: measles, mumps, rubella, varicella/zoster (chicken pox), yellow fever, rabies, Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG), and typhoid vaccine. Seasonal influenza vaccines for injection are generally killed virus vaccines and are allowed; however, intranasal influenza vaccines (eg, FluMist®) are live attenuated vaccines and are not allowed
• Patients with a history of life-threatening autoimmune disease or active autoimmune disease that has required systemic treatment in the past 2 years (i.e. with use of disease modifying agents, corticosteroids or immunosuppressive drugs). Replacement therapy (eg., thyroxine, insulin, or physiologic corticosteroid replacement therapy for adrenal or pituitary insufficiency, etc.) is not considered a form of systemic treatment
• Patients with a history of non-infectious pneumonitis that required corticosteroid treatment, or has current pneumonitis
• Patients with a history of allergic reactions to the tetanus vaccine

Inclusion Criteria
• Documented diagnosis of multiple myeloma (MM) and measurable disease.
• Received 1 to 2 prior lines of anti-myeloma therapy.
• Must have documented disease progression during or after their last anti-myeloma regimen.
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status score of 0, 1 or 2. Exclusion Criteria
• Any condition that confounds the ability to interpret data from the study.
• Has plasma cell leukemia, Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia or POEMS syndrome (polyneuropathy, organomegaly, endocrinopathy, monoclonal protein, and skin changes), or clinically significant amyloidosis.
• Known central nervous system involvement with MM.
• Prior therapy with iberdomide.
• Other protocol-defined Inclusion/Exclusion criteria apply.

• HER2-positive status will be based on pretreatment biopsy material and defined as an immunohistochemistry (IHC) score of 3+ and/or positive by in situ hybridization (ISH) according to current American Society of Clinical Oncology (ASCO) College of American Pathologists (CAP) guidelines. Central testing is not required * Known hormone receptor (HR) status as defined by ASCO/CAP guidelines (based on pretreatment biopsy material). Hormone receptor positive status can be determined by either known positive estrogen receptor (ER) or known positive progesterone receptor (PR) status; hormone receptor negative status must be determined by both known negative ER and known negative PR
• Patients with clinical stage T1-4, N0-3 disease at presentation and residual invasive disease postoperatively as defined above are eligible. (Note: Patients with T1a/bN0 tumors are not eligible at initial breast cancer diagnosis are not eligible)
• Patients with residual HR-negative, HER2 positive (+) disease in the breast and/or lymph nodes per the surgical pathology report are eligible; however, patients with HR+ HER2+ cancers must have node-positive residual disease per the surgical pathology report in order to qualify for the study. The presence of residual invasive disease in the breast is not mandatory for these patients
• Patients with weakly ER-positive (1-10%) breast cancer (based on the pretreatment core biopsy) are eligible even if they have node-negative disease per the surgical pathology report
• The residual disease tissue (breast and/or lymph nodes) is not required to be HER2-positive, as eligibility for NCI-2020-03770 (A011801) is based on a positive HER2 status at the time of the initial breast cancer diagnosis * Note: The presence of micrometastases in lymph nodes after preoperative therapy counts as residual disease, whereas the presence of isolated tumor cells does not
• Patients with synchronous bilateral invasive disease are eligible provided both lesions were confirmed to be HER2-positive, and at least one of the lesions meets the criteria outlined above. Multifocal disease is allowed, as long as the largest biopsied breast tumor was HER2-positive
• Patients must have received neoadjuvant chemotherapy with one of the following regimens: docetaxel/trastuzumab/pertuzumab (THP), paclitaxel/methotrexate/cisplatin (TMP), doxorubicin/cyclophosphamide/paclitaxel/trastuzumab/pertuzumab (AC-TH(P)); docetaxel/carboplatin/trastuzumab/pertuzumab (TCH(P)); fluorouracil/doxorubicin/cyclophosphamide-docetaxel/trastuzumab/pertuzumab (FAC-TH(P)), or fluorouracil/epirubicin/cyclophosphamide-docetaxel/trastuzumab/pertuzumab (FEC-TH(P)). Note: apart from TCHP, where T is docetaxel, treatment with docetaxel or paclitaxel is acceptable
• Prior receipt of T-DM1 in the neoadjuvant setting is not allowed.
• Prior treatment must have consisted of >= 6 cycles of chemotherapy and HER2-directed therapy, with a total duration of >= 12 weeks, including at least 9 weeks of preoperative taxane and trastuzumab with or without pertuzumab (or Food and Drug Administration [FDA]-approved biosimilars). Patients who have received at least 9 weeks of preoperative taxane, pertuzumab and margetuximab are also eligible if they received >= 6 cycles of systemic therapy prior to enrollment. Note: Patients who complete at least nine of a planned twelve doses of weekly paclitaxel, or three of a planned four doses of docetaxel, but discontinue prematurely due to toxicity are eligible. Patients receiving dose-dense chemotherapy regimens are also eligible. Prior use of nab-paclitaxel (Abraxane) instead of paclitaxel or docetaxel is permitted. Prior use of subcutaneous trastuzumab (Hylecta) and subcutaneous trastuzumab and pertuzumab (Phesgo) is also allowed.
• Patients who received neoadjuvant systemic therapy which included experimental HER2-targeted therapy/therapies are potentially eligible, as long as the investigational agent was not a HER2-targeted antibody-drug conjugate (e.g. T-DM1, DS-8201a [trastuzumab deruxtecan]) or a HER2 targeted tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI) (e.g. tucatinib, lapatinib, neratinib).
• Patients may have received =< 1 cycles of T-DM1 in the adjuvant setting. Note: These patients will be randomized to receive a further 14 cycles of T-DM1 and tucatinib/placebo as tolerated. The most recent cycle of T-DM1 should have been administered =< 5 weeks prior to registration * Note: Both of the following two criteria need to be met for the patient to be eligible for this study
• An interval of no more than 12 weeks between the completion date of the last definitive treatment (e.g. postoperative chemotherapy or radiation, or if neither given, breast surgical date) and the date of registration. Concurrent radiation therapy is permitted while receiving study treatment
• Patients must be registered on study within =< 180 days of the date of the most recent definitive breast cancer surgery (not including reconstructive surgery)
• All systemic chemotherapy should have been completed preoperatively unless participating in EA1181 (CompassHER2 pathologic complete response [pCR]) or the BIG DECRESCENDO Trial (which is very similar to CompassHER2 pCR in terms of study design, drugs, and eligibility). However, patients who received 4 cycles of neoadjuvant THP off study can receive a further 2-4 cycles of chemotherapy postoperatively to meet eligibility for A011801. Patients who participated in EA1181 or MA41 and proceeded to surgery immediately after the de-escalated trial regimen must receive postoperative chemotherapy to complete a total of >= 6 cycles of systemic treatment prior to enrollment on A011801, as outlined above (e.g. 4 cycles pre-operatively, and 2 cycles post-operatively). The postoperative chemotherapy regimen prescribed is at the discretion of the treating oncologist (i.e. 2-4 cycles AC or THP, other). Continuation of trastuzumab + pertuzumab (HP) pre- or post-operatively as maintenance therapy (while awaiting a surgical date or an official pathology report) is allowed for all study participants
• Toxicities related to prior systemic treatment should have resolved or be at baseline, apart from alopecia and peripheral neuropathy =< grade 1
• Adequate excision: surgical removal of all clinically evident disease in the breast and lymph nodes as follows:
• Breast surgery: total mastectomy with no gross residual disease at the margin of resection, or breast-conserving surgery with histologically negative margins of excision
• For patients who undergo breast-conserving surgery, the margins of the resected specimen must be histologically free of invasive tumor and ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) as determined by the local pathologist. If pathologic examination demonstrates tumor at the line of resection, additional operative procedures may be performed to obtain clear margins. If tumor is still present at the resected margin after re-excision(s), the patient must undergo total mastectomy to be eligible. Patients with margins positive for classic lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) are eligible without additional resection
• Lymph node surgery ** The axilla needs to be evaluated with either sentinel node biopsy or axillary lymph node dissection. If patients have a sentinel lymph node biopsy and sentinel nodes are negative, no further axillary treatment is necessary. If patients have isolated tumor cells (ITCs) in the setting of residual breast disease, at least one of the following is required: axillary lymph node dissection (ALND) or planned nodal irradiation. If patients have micro- or macro-metastatic nodal disease, ALND and planned nodal irradiation are required. Of note, co-enrollment on Alliance A011202 is not allowed
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status 0-1
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,000/mm^3
• Hemoglobin >= 8 g/dL (Note: packed red blood cells [PRBC] transfusion is not permitted to achieve eligibility)
• Platelet count >= 100,000/mm^3
• Creatinine =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN)
• Total bilirubin =< 1.0 x upper limit of normal (ULN) or direct bilirubin within the institutional normal range for patients with Gilbert's syndrome
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)/alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 2.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN)
• Screening left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) >= 50% on echocardiogram (ECHO) or multiple-gated acquisition (MUGA) after receiving neoadjuvant chemotherapy and no decrease in LVEF by more than 15% absolute percentage points from the pre-chemotherapy LVEF. Or, if pre-chemotherapy LVEF was not assessed, the screening LVEF must be >= 55% after completion of neoadjuvant chemotherapy. Note: LVEF assessment may be repeated once up to 3 weeks following the initial screening assessment to assess eligibility
• No adjuvant treatment with any anti-cancer investigational drug within 28 days prior to registration
• Not pregnant and not nursing, because this study involves an agent that has known genotoxic, mutagenic and teratogenic effects. Therefore, for women of childbearing potential only, a negative serum pregnancy test done =< 7 days prior to registration is required
• Patients with known active and/or untreated hepatitis B or hepatitis C or chronic liver disease are ineligible. Patients with a diagnosis of hepatitis B or C that has been treated and cleared and normal liver function are eligible to participate in the study if the other eligibility parameters are met
• Stage IV (metastatic) breast cancer
• History of any prior (ipsi- or contralateral) invasive breast cancer within 3 years of registration
• Patients with ER+ HER2+ residual invasive disease that is lymph node-negative per the surgical pathology report
• Evidence of recurrent disease following preoperative therapy and surgery
• Patients for whom radiotherapy would be recommended for breast cancer treatment but for whom it is contraindicated because of medical reasons (e.g., connective tissue disorder or prior ipsilateral breast radiation)
• History of exposure to the following cumulative doses of anthracyclines: doxorubicin > 240 mg/m^2; epirubicin or liposomal doxorubicin-hydrochloride (Myocet) > 480 mg/m^2. For other anthracyclines, exposure equivalent to doxorubicin > 240 mg/m^2
• Cardiopulmonary dysfunction as defined by any of the following:
• History of National Cancer Institute (NCI) CTCAE version (v) 5.0 grade >= 3 symptomatic congestive heart failure (CHF) or New York Heart Association (NYHA) criteria class >= II
• Angina pectoris requiring anti-anginal medication, serious cardiac arrhythmia not controlled by adequate medication, severe conduction abnormality, or clinically significant valvular disease
• High-risk uncontrolled arrhythmias: i.e., atrial tachycardia with a heart rate > 100/min at rest, significant ventricular arrhythmia (ventricular tachycardia) or higher-grade atrioventricular block (AV)-block (second degree AV-block type 2 [Mobitz 2] or third degree AV-block)
• Significant symptoms (grade >= 2) relating to left ventricular dysfunction, cardiac arrhythmia, or cardiac ischemia while or since receiving preoperative therapy
• History of a decrease in left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) to < 40% with prior trastuzumab treatment (e.g., during preoperative therapy)
• Uncontrolled hypertension (systolic blood pressure > 180 mmHg and/or diastolic blood pressure > 100 mmHg)
• Current severe, uncontrolled systemic disease
• Major surgical procedure unrelated to breast cancer or significant traumatic injury within 28 days prior to registration or anticipation of the need for major surgery during the course of study treatment
• History of intolerance, including grade 3 to 4 infusion reaction or hypersensitivity to trastuzumab or murine proteins or any components of the product
• Peripheral neuropathy of any etiology that exceeds grade 1
• Assessment by the investigator as being unable or unwilling to comply with the requirements of the protocol
• Use of a strong CYP3A4 or CYP2C8 inhibitor within 2 weeks, or use of a strong CYP3A4 or CYP2C8 inducer within 5 days prior to registration is prohibited.
• Please note that use of sensitive CYP3A substrates should be avoided two weeks before registration and during study treatment. Additionally, CYP3A4 or CYP2C8 inducers are prohibited as concomitant medications within 5 days following discontinuation of tucatinib treatment. Patients who require medications that are known to be sensitive substrates of CYP3A4 with a narrow therapeutic window should be excluded.

• Patient must be >= 18 years of age
• Patient must have histopathologic diagnosis of prostate cancer
• Patient must have castration-resistant prostate cancer
• Patient must have radiographic evidence of bone metastasis
• Patients must be symptomatic from prostate cancer
• Patient must have plans to undergo treatment with radium-223
• Patient must have a PSA level >= 10 ng/mL
• Patient must have castrate testosterone levels demonstrated within the last 3 months prior to screening
• Patient must have anticipated survival > 3 months
• Patient must be willing and able to authorize consent
• Patient must be willing and able to comply with the protocol, including follow-up visits
• Patient must not have visceral metastasis
• Patients on regimens of radium-223 in combination with other antineoplastic agents are excluded * Bone-targeted only therapy (e.g. denosumab or zoledronic acid) will be allowed
• Patients who have received prior radium-223
• Patients who have received prior platinum containing chemotherapy
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) < 1.5 x 10^9/L
• Hemoglobin (HB) < 9 g/dL
• Platelets (PLT) < 100 x 10^9/L
• Any condition which, in the investigator's opinion, makes the subject unsuitable for trial participation

• STEP 0 (PRE-REGISTRATION) INCLUSION CRITERIA
• Patient must be >= 18 years of age on day of consent
• Patient must have an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0-2
• Patient must have a diagnosis of pancreatic cancer and have successfully undergone a curative intent surgical resection and must have no evidence of recurrent disease as determined by the investigator
• NOTE: This includes patients with adenocarcinoma, acinar carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma adenosquamous and variants thereof. Patients with neuroendocrine tumors are excluded from enrolling
• Patient must (1) be planning to receive, (2) be receiving or (3) have received at least three combined months (i.e., 12 weeks) of perioperative (neoadjuvant, adjuvant or a combination of both) systemic, multi-agent chemotherapy. Patients may have had up to 6 months of perioperative systemic therapy as deemed appropriate by their primary treating medical team (patients can have received radiation or chemoradiation in addition to this 6 month course)
• Patient must be no more than 12 weeks from their most recent treatment (this may be chemotherapy, radiotherapy or surgery)
• Patient must have a known pathogenic or likely pathogenic germline or somatic mutation in BRCA1, BRCA2, or PALB2, as determined by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified or equivalently-accredited laboratory. Mutations must be considered pathogenic or likely pathogenic by a reference database such as ClinVar or OncoKb.org
• STEP 1 (RANDOMIZATION) INCLUSION CRITERIA
• Patient must have met the eligibility criteria outlined above
• Patient must have undergone at least 3 combined months (i.e., 12 weeks) of perioperative (neoadjuvant, adjuvant or a combination of both) systemic, multi-agent chemotherapy. Patients may have had up to 6 months of perioperative systemic therapy as deemed appropriate by their primary treating medical team (patients can have received radiation or chemoradiation in addition to this 6 months course)
• Central expert reviewer must have determined the patient eligible for randomization after review of local genetic testing reports
• If mutation in BRCA1, BRCA2 or PALB2 was identified in tumor tissue and the patient has not previously undergone germline testing, the patient must agree to undergo germline testing
• Patient must have no evidence of recurrent or metastatic pancreatic cancer at the time of randomization as documented by baseline scans obtained =< 4 weeks prior to Step 1 randomization
• Patient must not have previously had evidence of progressive pancreatic cancer while receiving platinum-based therapy
• Patient must be >= 21 days (three weeks) from their last treatment (including chemotherapy radiotherapy or surgery) but =< 84 days (twelve weeks) from their last treatment at the time of Step 1 randomization. Patients who have received neoadjuvant and/or adjuvant radiotherapy are eligible
• Patient must have recovered from any adverse events due to prior anti-cancer therapy (i.e., have no residual toxicities > grade 1 with the exception of alopecia and/or neuropathy)
• Patient must not be receiving any other investigational agents at the time of Step 1 randomization and while on protocol treatment
• Patient must not have any history of allergic reactions attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biological composition to olaparib
• Patient must not have any personal history of myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) or acute myeloid leukemia (AML). Patients with myelodysplastic syndrome/acute myeloid leukemia or with features suggestive of MDS/AML.
• Patient must not have any uncontrolled gastrointestinal disorder that would, in the opinion of the investigator, interfere with the ingestion or absorption of olaparib
• Patient must not be pregnant or breast-feeding due the potential harm to an unborn fetus and possible risk for adverse events in nursing infants with the treatment regimens being used. All patients of childbearing potential must have a blood test or urine study within 14 days prior to Step 1 randomization to rule out pregnancy. A patient of childbearing potential is defined as anyone, regardless of sexual orientation or whether they have undergone tubal ligation, who meets the following criteria: 1) has achieved menarche at some point, 2) has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or 3) has not been naturally postmenopausal (amenorrhea following cancer therapy does not rule out childbearing potential) for at least 24 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 24 consecutive months)
• Patients must not expect to conceive or father children by using accepted and effective method(s) of contraception or by abstaining from sexual intercourse for the duration of their participation in the study and for 6 months after the last dose of protocol treatment for female patients and for 3 months after the last dose of protocol treatment for male patients. Patients must also not donate sperm while on protocol treatment and for 3 months after the last dose of protocol treatment. Patients must also not breast-feed while on protocol treatment and for 1 month after the last dose of protocol treatment
• Leukocytes >= 3,000/mcL (obtained =< 28 days prior to Step 1 randomization)
• Absolute neutrophil count >= 1,500/mcL (obtained =< 28 days prior to Step 1 randomization)
• Platelets >= 100,000/mcL (obtained =< 28 days prior to Step 1 randomization)
• Hemoglobin >= 9.0 g/dL with no blood transfusion in the past 28 days (obtained =< 28 days prior to Step 1 randomization)
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) except in patients with Gilbert's syndrome. Patients with Gilbert's syndrome may enroll if direct bilirubin =< 2.5 x ULN of the direct bilirubin (obtained =< 28 days prior to Step 1 randomization)
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) (serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase [SGOT])/alanine aminotransferase (ALT) (serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase [SGPT]) =< 2.5 institutional ULN (obtained =< 28 days prior to Step 1 randomization)
• Creatinine =< 1.5 institutional ULN OR calculated Cockcroft Gault creatinine clearance > 50 mL/min/1.73 m^2 (obtained =< 28 days prior to Step 1 randomization)
• Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patients on effective anti-retroviral therapy with undetectable viral load within 6 months are eligible for this trial
• For patients with evidence of chronic hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection, the HBV viral load must be undetectable on suppressive therapy, if indicated
• Patients with a history of hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection must have been treated and cured. For patients with HCV infection who are currently on treatment, they are eligible if they have an undetectable HCV viral load
• Patient must not have resting electrocardiogram (ECG) indicating uncontrolled, potentially reversible cardiac conditions, as judged by the investigator (e.g. unstable ischemia, uncontrolled symptomatic arrhythmia, congestive heart failure, corrected QT [QTc] prolongation > 500 ms, electrolyte disturbances, etc.) or have congenital long QT syndrome
• Concomitant use of known potent CYP3A4/5 inhibitors such as ketoconazole, itraconazole, ritonavir, indinavir, saquinavir, telithromycin, clarithromycin and nelfinavir is prohibited
• Patients who are being actively treated for an ongoing concurrent malignancy are ineligible, with the exception of those receiving adjuvant hormone therapies and those receiving topical therapies for skin cancers
• Patient must not have, in the opinion of the investigator, any other concurrent medical condition that would prevent the patient from complying with the study procedures
• Patient must not be considered a poor medical risk due to a serious, uncontrolled medical disorder, non-malignant systemic disease or active, uncontrolled infection. Examples include, but are not limited to, uncontrolled ventricular arrhythmia, recent (within 3 months) myocardial infarction, uncontrolled major seizure disorder, unstable spinal cord compression, superior vena cava syndrome, extensive interstitial bilateral lung disease on high resolution computed tomography (HRCT) scan or any psychiatric disorder that prohibits obtaining informed consent
• Patient must have the ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent document, or have legally authorized representative provide authorization to participate
• Patient must not have had major surgery within 2 weeks prior to Step 1 randomization and patients must have recovered from any effects of any major surgery

Part A,B,C and D:
• Histological, pathological, or cytological confirmed diagnosis of adenocarcinoma of the prostate.
• Ongoing androgen deprivation therapy (ADT) with a gonadotropin releasing hormone analog or inhibitor, or orchiectomy (surgical or medical castration).
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 or 1 Part A:
• Progression on at least 2 prior approved systemic therapies for metastatic prostate cancer (at least one must be a second-generation androgen inhibitor, e.g., abiraterone, enzalutamide, darolutamide, apalutamide).
• Progressive mCRPC Part B:
• Participants must have received at least one but no more than three prior second generation anti-androgen agents (e.g., enzalutamide or abiraterone).
• Participants must have received no more than two prior chemotherapy regimens.
• Progressive mCRPC Part C & D: • Metastatic castration resistant or sensitive prostate cancer with radiographic evidence of metastatic disease Part A and B:
• Known symptomatic brain metastases requiring steroids (above physiologic replacement doses).
• Active inflammatory gastrointestinal disease, chronic diarrhea, known diverticular disease, or previous gastric resection or lap band surgery.
• Radiation therapy within 4 weeks of first dose of study drug or prior irradiation to >25% of the bone marrow.
• Receipt of an investigational drug(s) within 4 weeks prior to anticipated first dose
• Systemic anti-cancer therapy within 2 weeks of first dose of study drug (except agents to maintain castrate status). For bicalutamide, mitomycin C, or nitrosoureas the exclusion period must be 6 weeks and for abiraterone 4 weeks. Part C and D • Prior treatment with a second generation NHA

• Biopsy proven soft tissue sarcoma of the extremity, trunk, or head and neck
• No prior sarcoma-directed therapy
• Age ≥ 18 years
• Karnofsky performance status ≥ 60
• Able to understand and sign an informed consent
• Life expectancy of greater than 12 weeks
• Hypofractionated or conventionally fractionated radiotherapy using Intensity Modulated Radiation Therapy (IMRT) are both deemed feasible and safe neoadjuvant treatments, at the treating physician's discretion
• Operable disease and medically fit for surgery, based on the opinion of the consulting surgeon; surgery within 5-14 days of completion of radiation therapy (RT)
• Adequate bone marrow function as defined by absolute neutrophil count > 500/mcL, hemoglobin > 8 g/dL, platelets > 50,000/mcL; adequate renal function as defined by creatinine clearance > 30 mL/min
• Pregnant
• Unable to undergo imaging or positioning necessary for radiotherapy planning

• Males ≥18 years.
• Histologically, pathologically, or cytologically confirmed prostate adenocarcinoma.
• Evidence of castration-resistant prostate cancer (CRPC).
• Presence of metastatic disease at study entry documented by 1 or more bone lesions on bone scan or by soft tissue disease observed by CT/MRI.
• Naïve to second generation anti-androgens.
• Evidence of progressive disease defined as 1 or more Prostate Cancer Working Group 3 (PCWG3) criteria.
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 or 1.
• Ongoing ADT with luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) agonist/antagonist therapy or history of bilateral orchiectomy, with castrate level testosterone.
• Serum testosterone ≤1.73 nmol/L (50 ng/dL).
• Subjects receiving bisphosphonates or other approved bone-targeting therapy (e.g., denosumab) must be on a stable dose for at least 28 days prior to the start of study treatment.
• Demonstrate adequate organ function.
• Biologic anti-cancer therapy within 28 days prior to the start of study treatment.
• Use of hormonal agents with anti-tumor activity against prostate cancer within 28 days prior to the start of study treatment.
• Use of herbal products or alternative therapies that may decrease PSA levels or that may have hormonal anti-prostate cancer activity within 28 days prior to the start of study treatment or plans to initiate during the study.
• Intervention with any chemotherapy, investigational agents, or other anti-cancer drugs within 28 days of the first dose of study treatment.
• Use of radium-223 dichloride or other radioligand/radiopharmaceutical within 28 days prior to the start of study treatment.
• Received limited-field palliative bone radiotherapy >5 fractions and/or any radiotherapy within 2 weeks prior to the start of study treatment.
• Received a blood transfusion within 28 days of hematologic screening labs.
• Known intra-cerebral disease or brain metastasis unless adequately treated and stable for the last 28 days before signing of informed consent.
• Spinal cord compression.
• Diagnosis of another clinically significant malignancy within the previous 3 years other than curatively treated non-melanomatous skin cancer or superficial urothelial carcinoma and other in situ or non-invasive malignancies.
• Gastrointestinal issues affecting absorption.
• Significant cardiovascular disease.
• Known history of seizure or conditions that may pre-dispose them to seizure, including brain injury with loss of consciousness, transient ischemic attack within the past 12 months, cerebral vascular accident, brain metastases, and brain arteriovenous malformation.
• Concurrent disease or any clinically significant abnormality.
• Known or suspected hypersensitivity to any components of the formulation used for EPI-7386 or enzalutamide.
• Use of strong inhibitors of CYP2C8.
• Use of strong inducers of CYP3A.
• Use of narrow therapeutic index sensitive CYP2C8 or sensitive substrates for CYP3A and CYP2B6.
• Use of granulocyte colony stimulating factor within 7 days prior to screening laboratories.
• Not a candidate for enzalutamide treatment.
• Patients with rare hereditary problems of fructose intolerance.

• Patient must have a diagnosis of BRAF^V600E/K-mutated metastatic melanoma
• Patient must have had documented radiographic or clinical evidence of progressive disease while on combination BRAF/MEK inhibitor therapy. For Phase 2 only, no more than one intervening therapy since progression on BRAF/MEK inhibitor therapy is allowed. Subjects who have evidence of progression while on, or within 4 weeks of completing, combination BRAF/MEK inhibitor therapy in the adjuvant setting will be eligible
• PHASE 2 ONLY: Patient must have EZH2 alteration (somatic mutation or copy number alteration). Can be performed on either archival or fresh specimen. EZH2 alterations need to be documented by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)/Clinical Laboratory Improvement Program (CLIP)-certified next generation sequencing platform (Foundation One, Tempus, Guardant360, etc.)
• PHASE 2 ONLY: Patient must have measurable disease
• PHASE 2 ONLY: Patient must have at least one tumor lesion amenable to biopsy. If possible, this lesion should be different from the lesion used for following tumor measurements but is not required
• PHASE 2 ONLY: Patient must agree to planned pre-treatment and planned on-treatment biopsy. A pre-treatment biopsy will be optional if patient has an archival tissue block or 5 formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded (FFPE) slides available from specimen used to document presence of eligible EZH2 alteration that is deemed adequate for evaluation
• Patient must be >=18 years
• Because no dosing or adverse event data are currently available on the use of tazemetostat in combination with dabrafenib and trametinib in patients < 18 years of age, children are excluded from this study
• Patient must have an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status =< 2 (Karnofsky >= 50%)
• Patients with symptomatic central nervous system (CNS) metastases are eligible if previously treated with surgery and/or radiation with no evidence of radiologic CNS recurrence or progression for 4 weeks and on a stable/tapering dose of steroid for at least one week prior to start of study drug. Patients with new or progressive asymptomatic CNS metastases are eligible
• Hemoglobin >= 9 g/dL
• Albumin >= 2.5 g/dL
• Leukocytes >= 3,000/mcL
• Absolute neutrophil count >= 1,500/mcL
• Platelets >= 100,000/mcL
• Serum bilirubin =< 1.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) except subjects with known Gilbert's syndrome
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) (serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase [SGOT])/alanine aminotransferase (ALT) (serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase [SGPT]) =< 2.5 x institutional ULN
• Creatinine =< 1.5 mg/dL OR calculated creatinine clearance (Cockcroft-Gault formula) >= 50 mL/min
• Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 60 mL/min/1.73 m^2
• Patients with a prior (or concurrent, if enrolling in Phase 1) malignancy whose natural history or treatment does not have the potential to interfere with the safety or efficacy assessment of the investigational regimen are eligible for this trial
• Patient must be able to swallow and retain oral medication and must not have any clinically significant gastrointestinal abnormalities that may alter absorption such as malabsorption syndrome or major resection of the stomach or bowels
• Prothrombin time (PT)/international normalized ratio (INR) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) =< 1.3 x institutional ULN. Prophylactic low dose warfarin may be given to maintain central catheter patency
• The effects of tazemetostat, and the combination of tazemetostat, dabrafenib and trametinib on the developing human fetus are unknown. Women of childbearing potential and all male patients must agree to the following:
• For women of childbearing potential: agreement to remain abstinent (refrain from heterosexual intercourse) or use contraceptive methods that result in a failure rate of < 1% per year during the treatment period, for 6 months after tazemetostat discontinuation, or for 6 months after discontinuation of the combination of tazemetostat, dabrafenib and trametinib. Should a woman become pregnant or suspect she is pregnant while she is participating in this study, she should inform her treating physician immediately
• A woman is considered to be of childbearing potential if she is postmenarcheal, has not reached a postmenopausal state (>= 12 continuous months of amenorrhea with no identified cause other than menopause), and has not undergone surgical sterilization (removal of ovaries and/or uterus)
• Examples of contraceptive methods with a failure rate of < 1% per year include bilateral tubal ligation, male sterilization, established, proper use of hormonal contraceptives that inhibit ovulation, hormone-releasing intrauterine devices, and copper intrauterine devices
• Due to the potential of enzyme induction with tazemetostat, female subjects who use hormonal contraceptives should use an additional barrier method of birth control while on study treatment and for 6 months after discontinuation of tazemetostat or the combination of tazemetostat, dabrafenib and trametinib
• The reliability of sexual abstinence should be evaluated in relation to the duration of the clinical study and the preferred and usual lifestyle of the patient. Periodic abstinence (e.g., calendar, ovulation, symptothermal, or post ovulation methods) and withdrawal are not acceptable methods of contraception
• Women of childbearing potential must have a negative urine or serum pregnancy test at screening
• For men: agreement to remain abstinent (refrain from heterosexual intercourse) or use contraceptive measures and agreement to refrain from donating sperm, as defined below:
• With female partners of childbearing potential or pregnant female partners, men must remain abstinent or use a condom during the treatment period and for at least 4 months after the last dose of study drug. Men must refrain from donating sperm during this same period. In addition, female partners of male subjects should adhere to the following:
• Intrauterine device (IUD) (must provide medical documentation of IUD)
• Hormonal contraceptive (partner must be on a stable dose of the same hormonal contraceptive product for at least 4 weeks before receiving study drug) AND a condom (hormonal contraceptives must be supplemented with condoms)
• The reliability of sexual abstinence should be evaluated in relation to the duration of the clinical study and the preferred and usual lifestyle of the patient. Periodic abstinence and withdrawal are not acceptable methods of contraception
• Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent document. Participants with impaired decision-making capacity (IDMC) who have a legally-authorized representative (LAR) and/or family member available will also be eligible
• Have progressed on, been intolerant to is, ineligible for, or has refused prior standard of care anti-PD-1 based immunotherapy
• Previous therapy with a demethylating agent (i.e. decitabine) or previous therapy with an EZH2 inhibitor
• History of second malignancy not treated with curative intent
• History of life-threatening toxicity, including hypersensitivity, related to BRAF or MEK inhibitor therapy, or known immediate or delayed hypersensitivity reaction or idiosyncrasy to drugs chemically related to the study treatments, their excipients, and/or dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO)
• Active infection requiring intravenous therapy
• Presence of untreated or progressive symptomatic CNS melanoma metastases. Diffuse leptomeningeal carcinomatosis or metastases causing spinal cord compression are exclusionary. Previously treated lesions should be stable for >= 4 weeks (must be documented by imaging). Subjects on a stable dose of corticosteroids for > 1 week can be enrolled. Subjects must also be off of enzyme-inducing anticonvulsants for > 4 weeks
• Radiation therapy in the last 14 days. Palliative radiation to a localized area without residual toxicity requires a washout of at least 7 days
• Prior systemic anti-cancer therapy (chemotherapy, targeted therapy, immunotherapy, biologic therapy, or vaccine therapy) within the 3 weeks preceding the first dose of study treatment. For Phase 2 only, prior chemotherapy regimens are not permitted
• Use of other investigational drugs within 28 days (or five half-lives, whichever is shorter; with a minimum of 14 days from the last dose) preceding the first dose of study treatment and during the study
• Unresolved toxicity of National Cancer Institute Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events, version 5.0 (NCI CTCAE v5.0) grade 2 or higher from previous anti-cancer therapy, except alopecia, at the time of randomization
• Current use of a prohibited medication. Patients must not be treated with any medications or substances that are strong or moderate inhibitors or inducers of of CYP3A or strong inhibitors or inducers of CYP2C8 within 14 days prior to the first treatment through the end of the study. Current use of, or intended ongoing treatment with: herbal remedies (e.g., St. John's wort), or strong inhibitors or inducers of P-glycoprotein (Pgp) or breast cancer resistance protein 1 (Bcrp1) should also be excluded
• Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive patients on combination antiretroviral therapy are ineligible because of the potential for pharmacokinetic interactions with dabrafenib
• A history of hepatitis B virus (HBV) or hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection (with the exception of cleared HBV and HCV infection, which will be allowed)
• History of interstitial lung disease or pneumonitis
• Clinically significant bleeding diathesis or coagulopathy, including known platelet function disorders. Patients on anticoagulation with low molecular weight heparin or low dose warfarin are allowed
• History of myeloid malignancies, including myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)
• Has abnormalities known to be associated with MDS (e.g. del 5q, chr 7 abn) and multiple primary neoplasms (MPN) (e.g. JAK2 V617F) observed in cytogenetic testing and deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) sequencing
• History of T-lymphoblastic lymphoma (T-LBL)/T-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia (T-ALL)
• Patients with history of RAS mutation-positive tumors are not eligible regardless of interval from the current study. Note: Prospective RAS testing is not required. However, if the results of previous RAS testing are known, they must be used in assessing eligibility
• History or evidence of cardiovascular risks including any of the following:
• QT interval corrected for heart rate using Fridericia's formula (QT corrected by Fridericia [QTcF]) >= 450 msec
• History of acute coronary syndromes (including myocardial infarction or unstable angina), coronary angioplasty, or stenting within the past 24 weeks prior to randomization
• History or evidence of current class II, III, or IV heart failure as defined by the New York Heart Association (NYHA) functional classification system
• Intra-cardiac defibrillators
• Abnormal cardiac valve morphology (>= grade 2) documented by echocardiogram (ECHO); (subjects with grade 1 abnormalities [i.e., mild regurgitation/stenosis] can be entered on study). Subjects with moderate valvular thickening should not be entered on study
• History or evidence of current clinically significant uncontrolled cardiac arrhythmias; clarification: Subjects with atrial fibrillation controlled for > 30 days prior to dosing are eligible
• Treatment refractory hypertension defined as a blood pressure of systolic > 140 mmHg and/or diastolic > 90 mm Hg which cannot be controlled by anti-hypertensive therapy
• Left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) < institutional lower limit of normal (LLN) by ECHO or multigated acquisition scan (MUGA)
• Known cardiac metastases
• Patients with uncontrolled intercurrent illness
• Patients with psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements
• Pregnant women are excluded from this study because of the potential for teratogenic or abortifacient effects. Because there is an unknown but potential risk for adverse events in nursing infants secondary to treatment of the mother with tazemetostat / dabrafenib / trametinib, breastfeeding should be discontinued prior to treatment
• Patients with uncontrolled diabetes
• Patients with a history of retinal vein occlusion (RVO), retinal pigment epithelial detachment (RPED) or other ophthalmologic toxicity

• Documented diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) that requires treatment for CLL according to International Workshop for Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (iwCLL) 2018 criteria.
• Previously completed venetoclax + anti-CD20 antibody +/- X regimen as a fixed duration first-line (1L) therapy and achieved documented response, defined as complete remission, complete remission with incomplete marrow recovery, partial remission, or nodular partial remission.
• More than 24 months (Cohort 1) or 12-24 months (Cohort 2) have elapsed between last dose of venetoclax and disease progression after completion of 1L treatment.
•Received intervening treatment for CLL after completing previous treatment with a venetoclax + anti-CD20 antibody +/- X regimen.

• Patients have measurable disease per Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors version 1.1 (RECIST v1.1).
• Patients must have disease with evidence of KRAS G12C mutation in tumor tissue or circulating tumor deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).
• Participants must have a histological or a cytologically proven diagnosis of locally advanced, unresectable, and/or metastatic cancer and meet cohort-specific criteria.
• Have an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) Performance Status of 0 or 1.
• Have adequate organ function.
• Have discontinued all previous treatments for cancer with resolution of any significant ongoing adverse events (AEs), (except in certain scenarios).
• Must be able to swallow capsule/tablet.
• Agree and adhere to contraceptive use, if applicable.
• For some parts of the study, (i.e., one of the two arms with LY3537982 in combination with pembrolizumab and the arm of LY3537982 in combination with pembrolizumab, pemetrexed, and platinum therapy) histologically or cytologically confirmed Stage IIIB-IIIC or Stage IV NSCLC that is previously untreated in the advanced/metastatic setting and not suitable for curative intent radical surgery or radiation therapy. Previously untreated patients who received adjuvant and neoadjuvant therapy are eligible if the last dose of the systemic treatment was completed at least 6 months prior to enrollment. For untreated patients in the arm with LY3537982 in combination with pembrolizumab noted above, a single cycle of pembrolizumab may be initiated within 21 days prior to enrollment. For untreated patients in the arm of LY3537982 in combination with pembrolizumab, pemetrexed, and platinum therapy, a single cycle of any or all of the drugs other than LY3537982 may be initiated within 21 days prior to enrollment. Start of study treatment may be delayed to allow sufficient time for recovery from treatment-related toxicity.
• For one part of the study, participants must have received at least one prior oxaliplatin- or irinotecan-containing regimen for advanced or metastatic CRC.
• Disease suitable for local therapy administered with curative intent.
• Have an active, ongoing, or untreated infection.
• Have a serious pre-existing medical condition(s) that, in the judgment of the investigator, would preclude participation in this study.
• Have a serious cardiac condition.
• Have a second active primary malignancy or have been diagnosed and/or treated for an additional malignancy within 3 years prior to enrollment.
• Have symptomatic central nervous system (CNS) malignancy or metastasis and/or carcinomatous meningitis. Patients with treated CNS metastases are eligible for this study if their disease is asymptomatic, radiographically stable for at least 30 days, and they do not require treatment with steroids in the two-week period prior to study treatment. This only applies to some parts of the study.
• Have received prior treatment with any KRAS G12C small molecule inhibitor, except in certain scenarios where such prior therapy is allowed as per protocol.
• The following patients will be excluded from some parts of the study:
• Experienced certain serious side effects with prior immunotherapy.
• Have an active autoimmune disease that has required systemic anti-autoimmune treatment in the past 2 years.
• Have received a live vaccine within 30 days prior to the first dose of study drug.
• Pregnant, breastfeeding, or expecting to conceive or father children within the projected duration of the trial through 180 days after the last dose of study medication.
• Known allergic reaction against any of the components of the study treatments.

• Pathologically (histologically or cytologically) proven diagnosis of SCCHN of the oropharynx, larynx, hypopharynx, or p16-positive unknown primary prior to registration; specimen from cervical lymph nodes with a well-defined primary site documented clinically or radiologically is acceptable; in patients with carcinoma of unknown primary this will be sufficient for pathologic confirmation without a clinically or radiographically defined primary site
• For patients with oropharyngeal cancer (OPC)/cancer of unknown primary (CUP): P16 status based on local site immunohistochemical tissue staining is required. A cell block obtained from a fine needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy specimen may be used as the sole diagnostic tissue. Centers are encouraged to contact the pathology chair for clarification
• Note: Institutions must screen patients for p16 status by immunohistochemistry (IHC) in order to be eligible for the trial using a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-certified laboratory. A rigorous laboratory accreditation process similar to the United States (U.S.) CLIA certification, such as the provincial accreditation status offered by the Ontario Laboratory Accreditation (OLA) Program in Canada, the College of American Pathologists (CAP), or an equivalent accreditation in other countries, is acceptable.
• The p16 results must be reported on the pathology report being submitted. The p16 positivity is defined as > 70% of tumor cells showing strong nuclear and/or cytoplasmic immunostaining with p16 antibody.
• For patients with laryngeal and hypopharyngeal primaries: Analysis of p16 status is NOT required
• Patients must have clinically or radiographically evident measurable disease at the primary site or at nodal stations. Simple tonsillectomy or local excision of the primary without removal of nodal disease is permitted, as is excision removing gross nodal disease but with intact primary site. Limited neck dissections retrieving =< 4 nodes are permitted and considered as non-therapeutic nodal excisions
• Clinical stage (American Joint Committee on Cancer [AJCC], 8th ed.), including no distant metastases based on the following diagnostic workup:
• History/physical examination within 60 days prior to registration
• One of the following imaging studies is required within 60 days prior to registration:
• Computed tomography (CT) scan of neck (diagnostic quality with contrast, unless contraindicated) OR
• Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the neck (diagnostic quality with contrast, unless contraindicated) OR
• Fludeoxyglucose F-18 (FDG)-positron emission tomography (PET)/CT of the neck; the CT component must be of diagnostic quality with contrast, unless contraindicated.
• Note: A diagnostic quality CT or MRI with contrast or FDG-PET/CT scan of neck performed for the purposes of radiation planning may serve as both staging and planning tools
• One of the following imaging studies is required within 60 days prior to registration:
• FDG-PET/CT of the chest; FDG-PET/CT scan is strongly preferred and highly recommended to be used for eligibility OR
• Chest CT
• Exam with laryngopharyngoscopy (mirror or in office direct procedure acceptable) within 70 days prior to registration;
• Eligibility by patient cohort;
• Non-OPC/p16-negative OPC Cohort; Tumor Site: Larynx/Hypopharynx; Clinical Staging (AJCC, 8th ed.): T3-4 N0 or T1-4 N1-3 T2 N0 (hypopharynx only)
• Tumor Site: p16-negative OPC; Clinical Staging (AJCC, 8th ed.): T2N1, T1-4 N2-3, or T3-4 N0-1
• p16-positive OPC/CUP Cohort;
• Tumor Site: OPC; Smoking Status: =< 10 pack-years; Clinical Staging (AJCC, 8th ed.): T1-3 N2-3 or T4 N0-3
• Tumor Site: OPC; Smoking Status: > 10 pack-years; Clinical Staging (AJCC, 8th ed.): T1N2-3, T2N1-3 or T3-4 N0-3
• Tumor Site: CUP; Smoking Status: Any; Clinical Staging (AJCC, 8th ed.): T0 N2-3 Note: Cigar and pipe tobacco consumption is not included in calculating the lifetime pack-years. Marijuana consumption is likewise not considered in this calculation. There is also no clear scientific evidence regarding the role of chewing tobacco-containing products in oropharyngeal cancer, although this is possibly more concerning given the proximity of the oral cavity and oropharynx. In any case, investigators should not count use of non-cigarette tobacco products in the pack-years calculation.
• Age >= 18
• Zubrod (Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group [ECOG]) performance status of 0-1 within 14 days prior to registration
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,500 cells/mm^3 (within 30 days prior to registration)
• Platelets >= 75,000 cells/mm^3 (within 30 days prior to registration)
• Hemoglobin >= 8.0 g/dL (within 30 days prior to registration)
• Note: The use of transfusion or other intervention to achieve hemoglobin [Hgb] >= 8.0 g/dL is acceptable)
• Calculated creatinine clearance (CrCl) >= 50 mL/min by the Cockcroft-Gault formula (within 30 days prior to registration)
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) (within 30 days prior to registration) (not applicable to patients with known Gilbert's syndrome)
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 1.5 x institutional ULN (within 30 days prior to registration)
• Known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infected patients on effective anti-retroviral therapy with undetectable viral load within 6 months and CD4 T Cell count > 200 cells/mm^3 are eligible for this trial. Testing is not required for entry into protocol
• Patients with a prior or concurrent malignancy whose natural history or treatment does not have the potential to interfere with the safety or efficacy assessment of the investigational regimen are eligible for this trial
• Negative urine or serum pregnancy test (in persons of childbearing potential) within 14 days prior to registration. Childbearing potential is defined as any person who has experienced menarche and who has not undergone surgical sterilization (hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy) or who is not postmenopausal. Menopause is defined clinically as 12 months of amenorrhea in a woman over 45 in the absence of other biological or physiological causes
• Willing to use highly effective contraceptives for participants of childbearing potential (participants who may become pregnant or who may impregnate a partner) during therapy and for 14 months (females); for 11 months (males) following last dose of cisplatin; this inclusion is necessary because the treatment in this study may be significantly teratogenic
• The patient or a legally authorized representative must provide study-specific informed consent prior to study entry and, for patients treated in the United States (U.S.), authorization permitting release of personal health information
• Patients with oral cavity cancer, nasopharynx cancer, or p16-negative cancer of unknown primary (CUP)
• Recurrence of the study cancer
• Definitive clinical or radiologic evidence of distant metastatic disease
• Prior systemic chemotherapy for the study cancer; note that prior chemotherapy for a different cancer is allowable, however, any prior exposure to cisplatin is excluded
• Prior radiotherapy to the region of the study cancer that would result in overlap of radiation therapy fields
• Severe, active co-morbidity defined as follows:
• Unstable angina requiring hospitalization in the last 6 months
• Myocardial infarction within the last 6 months
• New York Heart Association Functional Classification III/IV (Note: Patients with known history or current symptoms of cardiac disease, or history of treatment with cardiotoxic agents, should have a clinical risk assessment of cardiac function using the New York Heart Association Functional Classification.)
• Persistent grade 3-4 (CTCAE version 5.0) electrolyte abnormalities that cannot be reversed despite replacement as indicated by repeat testing
• Patient must not have an active infection requiring IV antibiotics prior to registration;
• Other chronic renal disease like nephrotic syndrome, that could be worsened by cisplatin therapy
• History of allogenic organ transplantation
• Any symptomatic peripheral sensory neuropathy grade >= 2 (CTCAE version 5.0);
• Pregnancy and individuals unwilling to discontinue nursing
• History of hypersensitivity to cisplatin or platinum-containing compounds

• Willing to provide informed consent
• Willing to comply with all study procedures and be available for the duration of the study
• Histological diagnosis of Head and Neck Cancer (HNC) and ≥ 2 years from completion of treatment for HNC, either clinically or radiologically No Evidence of Disease (NED), as assessed by ENT or Radiation Oncologist within 28 days of study registration
• Individuals at least 18 years of age and no older than 90 years of age
• Xerostomia defined as less than or equal to 80 percent of baseline (pre-radiation) salivary function per patient estimate
• Karnofsky performance status ≥ 70, patient eligible for bone marrow aspirate with wakeful anesthesia
• Radiographically confirmed bilateral submandibular glands
• Females of childbearing potential must agree to have a negative urine or serum pregnancy test within 7 days prior to bone marrow biopsy. A female of child-bearing potential is any woman (regardless of sexual orientation, having undergone a tubal ligation, or remaining celibate by choice) who meets the following criteria:
• has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or
• has not been naturally postmenopausal for at least 12 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months)
• Women of childbearing potential in sexual relationships with men must have used an acceptable method of contraception for 30 days prior to study registration and agree to use an acceptable method of contraception until 4 weeks after completing study treatment. Males must agree to avoid impregnation of women during and for four weeks after completing study treatment through use of an acceptable method of contraception. Note: Acceptable method of contraception includes, but is not limited to, barrier with additional spermicidal foam or jelly, intrauterine device, hormonal contraception (started at least 30 days prior to study enrollment), intercourse with men who underwent vasectomy)
• History of sialolithiasis
• Patients with one submandibular gland
• History of autoimmune diseases affecting salivary glands, including Sjögren's syndrome, lupus, scleroderma, type I diabetes, sarcoidosis, and amyloidosis
• Chronic graft vs host disease
• Untreated oral candidiasis
• Use of anti-cholinergic medications (e.g. atropine, ipratropium, oxybutynin, scopolamine, solifenacin, tiotropium, etc…) while enrolled on study
• Malignancy within the past 2 years, except adequately treated stage I lung cancer, low risk prostate cancer that has been treated or is undergoing active surveillance, adequately treated non-melanoma skin cancer, adequately treated ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS), or adequately treated stage I cervical cancer
• Expected life expectancy ≤ 6 months
• Lidocaine allergy
• Use of investigational drugs, biologics, or devices within 30 days prior to enrollment
• Women who are pregnant, lactating or planning on becoming pregnant during the study
• Not suitable for study participation due to other reasons at the discretion of the investigators

• Patients must be =< 50 years of age at the time of enrollment
• Patients with newly diagnosed RMS of any subtype, except adult-type pleomorphic, based upon institutional histopathologic classification are eligible to enroll on the study based upon stage, group, and age, as below. FOXO1 fusion status must be determined by week 4 (day 28) of therapy. RMS types included under embryonal RMS (ERMS) include those classified in the 1995 International Classification of Rhabdomyosarcoma (ICR) as ERMS (classic, spindle cell, and botryoid variants), which are reclassified in the 2020 World Health Organization (WHO) Classification as ERMS (classic, dense and botryoid variants) and spindle cell/sclerosing RMS (encompassing the historical spindle cell ERMS variant and the newly recognized sclerosing RMS variant). Classification of alveolar RMS (ARMS) in the 2020 WHO Classification is the same as in the ICR and includes classic and solid variants
• ERMS
• Stage 4, group IV, >= 10 years of age
• ARMS
• Stage 4, group IV Patients will be eligible to remain on protocol therapy based upon stage, group, and age
• Bone marrow metastatic disease is based on morphologic evidence of RMS based on hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) stains. In the absence of morphologic evidence of marrow involvement on H&E, patients with bone marrow involvement detected ONLY by flow cytometry, reverse transcriptase (RT)-polymerase chain reaction (PCR), fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH), or immunohistochemistry will NOT be considered to have clinical bone marrow involvement for the purposes of this study
• Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 70 mL/min/1.73 m^2 or a serum creatinine based on age/gender as follows (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment):
• Age; Maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL)
• 1 month to < 6 months; 0.4 mg/dL (male); 0.4 mg/dL (female)
• 6 months to < 1 year; 0.5 mg/dL (male); 0.5 mg/dL (female)
• 1 to < 2 years; 0.6 mg/dL (male); 0.6 mg/dL (female)
• 2 to < 6 years; 0.8 mg/dL (male); 0.8 mg/dL (female)
• 6 to < 10 years; 1 mg/dL (male); 1 mg/dL (female)
• 10 to < 13 years; 1.2 mg/dL (male); 1.2 mg/dL (female)
• 13 to < 16 years; 1.5 mg/dL (male); 1.4 mg/dL (female)
• >= 16 years; 1.7 mg/dL (male); 1.4 mg/dL (female)
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age (must be performed within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• If there is evidence of biliary obstruction by tumor, then total bilirubin must be < 3 x ULN for age
• All patients and/or their parents or legal guardians must sign a written informed consent
• All institutional, Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and National Cancer Institute (NCI) requirements for human studies must be met
• Patients with evidence of uncontrolled infection are not eligible
• RMS that is considered a second malignancy and previous cancer(s) that were treated with chemotherapy and/or radiation. Surgical resection alone of previous cancer(s) is allowed
• Patients with central nervous system involvement of RMS as defined below:
• Malignant cells detected in cerebrospinal fluid
• Intra-parenchymal brain metastasis separate and distinct from primary tumor (i.e., direct extension from parameningeal primary tumors is allowed).
• Diffuse leptomeningeal disease
• Patients who have received any chemotherapy (excluding steroids) and/or radiation therapy for RMS prior to enrollment.
• Note: the following exception:
• Patients requiring emergency radiation therapy for RMS. These patients are eligible, provided they are consented to ARST2031 prior to administration of radiation
• Note: Patients who have received or are receiving chemotherapy or radiation for non-malignant conditions (e.g. autoimmune diseases) are eligible. Patients must discontinue chemotherapy for non-malignant conditions prior to starting protocol therapy
• Vincristine and vinorelbine are sensitive substrates of CYP450 3A4 isozyme. Patients must not have received drugs that are moderate to strong CYP3A4 inhibitors and inducers within 7 days prior to study enrollment
• Female patients who are pregnant since fetal toxicities and teratogenic effects have been noted for several of the study drugs. A pregnancy test is required for female patients of childbearing potential
• Lactating females who plan to breastfeed their infants
• Sexually active patients of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of their study participation

• Patient must have histologically or cytologically proven stage I-IIA or limited T3N0M0 non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC), without radiographic evidence of nodal or distant involvement (N0M0). Patient may have T3 disease with the exclusion of pericardial involvement. Patients with multifocal tumors with no more than two lesions confirmed or suspected to be synchronous early stage NSCLCs are eligible provided at least one lesion is histologically or cytologically proven to be NSCLC and meets one or more high-risk features
• Disease must have one or more of the following high-risk features:
• Tumor diameter >= 2 cm (inclusive of any non-solid, ground glass component) as assessed by diagnostic CT
• Tumor standard uptake value (SUV) max >= 6.2 as assessed by FDG PET/CT
• Moderately differentiated, poorly differentiated, or undifferentiated histology
• Patient must have undergone diagnostic chest CT with or without contrast (IV contrast preferred) within 42 days prior to randomization. PET-CT may be used if the CT portion is of comparable diagnostic quality to a stand-alone CT. All disease must be assessed within 42 days prior to randomization
• Patient must have undergone FDG PET/CT of chest within 90 days prior to randomization
• Patient must not have evidence of hilar or mediastinal nodal involvement. Any patient with radiographically suspicious hilar or mediastinal nodes (including features such as non-calcified nodes with a short axis diameter > 1 cm, abnormal morphology, and/or elevated FDG avidity) must undergo cytologic sampling of suspicious nodes to rule out involvement prior to randomization. Mediastinal nodal sampling for other patients is optional. For cases in which the treating physician/multidisciplinary opinion is used to define nodes as "non-suspicious" (such as long-standing, stable enlarged nodes from other medical causes), the rationale must be clearly documented within the medical record
• Patient must have undergone history and physical examination within 28 days prior to randomization
• Patient must be medically or surgically inoperable as documented by a board certified thoracic surgeon or multi-disciplinary tumor board consensus OR patient's unwillingness to undergo surgical resection must be clearly documented
• Patient must not have received any prior treatment for the current NSCLC diagnosis
• Patient must not have undergone prior radiation to overlapping regions of the chest that, in the opinion of the treatment physician, will interfere with protocol treatment
• Patient must not have received treatment with systemic immunostimulatory or immunosuppressive agents, including corticosteroids, within 14 days prior to randomization
• Patient must be >= 18 years old
• Patient must have Zubrod performance status of 0-2
• Patient must have adequate liver function defined as aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 3 x institutional upper level of normal (IULN) within 28 days prior to randomization
• Patient must have adequate renal function defined as calculated creatinine clearance >= 30 mL/min using the following formula. The serum creatinine value used in the calculation must have been collected within 28 days prior to randomization
• Patient must have absolute neutrophil count (ANC), platelets, and hemoglobin measured within 28 days prior to randomization. The purpose of these tests is to collect baseline values to compare with on-treatment values
• Patient must have thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) measured within 28 days prior to randomization. The purpose of this test is to collect baseline values to compare with on-treatment values
• Patient must not have significant cardiovascular disease (New York Heart Association [NYHA] class II or greater)
• Patient must not have myocardial infarction within 90 days prior to randomization
• Patient must not have unstable arrhythmias or unstable angina
• Patient must not have known left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) < 40% within 28 days prior to randomization
• NOTE: Assessment of LVEF by echocardiogram or multigated acquisition (MUGA) is not an eligibility requirement, but if a standard of care echocardiogram or MUGA was clinically indicated, the LVEF must not be < 40% within 28 days prior to randomization
• Patient must not have had an infection >= grade 3 (Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events [CTCAE] version 5.0) within 28 days prior to randomization
• Patient must not have an active autoimmune disease that has required systemic treatment in past two years (i.e., with use of disease modifying agents, corticosteroids or immunosuppressive drugs). Replacement therapy (e.g., thyroxine, insulin, or physiologic corticosteroid replacement therapy for adrenal or pituitary insufficiency) is not considered a form of systemic treatment and is allowed
• Patient must be tested for hepatitis B within 28 days prior to randomization. Patient must not have active (chronic or acute) hepatitis B virus (HBV) infection. Patients may have past or resolved HBV infection
• Active HBV is defined as having a positive hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) test
• Past or resolved HBV is defined as having a negative HBsAG test and a positive total hepatitis B core antibody (HBcAb) test
• Patient must be tested for hepatitis C within 28 days prior to randomization. Patient must not have active hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection
• Active HCV is defined as having a positive HCV antibody test followed by a positive HCV ribonucleic acid (RNA) test
• Patient must have pulmonary function testing to include, at a minimum, forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) and Diffusing capability of carbon monoxide (DLCO) documented within 90 days prior to randomization
• Patients with known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection must be receiving anti-retroviral therapy and have an undetectable viral load at their most recent viral load test within 6 months prior to randomization
• Patient must not have a history of clinically significant interstitial lung disease or evidence of active pneumonitis on the screening chest CT
• Patients must not have a prior or concurrent malignancy whose natural history or treatment has the potential (in the opinion of the treating physician) to interfere with the safety or efficacy assessment of the investigational regimen
• Patients must not be pregnant due to the potential teratogenic side effects of the protocol treatment. Women of reproductive potential and men must have agreed to use an effective contraception method for the duration of protocol treatment, and for 5 months (150 days) after the last dose of atezolizumab. A woman is considered to be of "reproductive potential" if she has had a menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months. In addition to routine contraceptive methods, "effective contraception" also includes heterosexual celibacy and surgery intended to prevent pregnancy (or with a side-effect of pregnancy prevention) defined as a hysterectomy, bilateral oophorectomy or bilateral tubal ligation. However, if at any point a previously celibate patient chooses to become heterosexually active during the time period for use of contraceptive measures outlined in the protocol, he/she is responsible for beginning contraceptive measures. Because there is an unknown but potential risk for adverse events in nursing infants secondary to treatment of the mother with atezolizumab, breastfeeding must be discontinued prior to randomization
• Patients of reproductive potential must have a negative serum pregnancy test within 14 days prior to randomization
• Patients must not have known active tuberculosis
• Patients must not have received a live, attenuated vaccine within 28 days prior to randomization
• NOTE: All coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19) vaccines that have received Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approval or FDA emergency use authorization are acceptable
• Patients must not have a known history of allergic reactions attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to atezolizumab
• Patients must not have a known history of severe allergic, anaphylactic, or other hypersensitivity reactions to chimeric antibodies, fusion proteins, or Chinese hamster ovary cell products or to any component of the atezolizumab formulation
• Patient must agree to have specimens submitted for translational medicine and banking
• Patients must be informed of the investigational nature of this study and must sign and give written informed consent in accordance with institutional and federal guidelines
• As a part of the OPEN registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the system
• Patients who can complete quality of life instruments in English, French, or Spanish must agree to complete the questionnaires at the protocol-specified time points

Criteria: Inclusion criteria: 1. Women and men ≥ 18 years old are eligible to enroll 2. ECOG performance status 0-1 3. Life expectancy of more than 6 months, in the opinion of the investigator 4. Histologically confirmed diagnosis of HER2+ locally advanced unresectable or metastatic breast cancer. HER2 positivity is defined by fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) and/or 3+ staining by IHC according to the latest ASCO/CAP guidelines. 5. Documented presence of activating mutation in PIK3CA in the tumor, based on the analysis of solid or liquid biopsy by an assay approved for clinical decision makingby an FDA-approved test (examples include FoundationOne Liquid®; Guardant360®, Therrascreen® PIK3CA). 6. Known ER and PR status of the tumor defined by IHC according to the latest ASCO/CAP guidelines 7. Patients with HR-/HER2+ or HR+/HER2+ breast cancer may enroll 8. HR+/HER2+ patients should be men or post-menopausal women; premenopausal women with HR+/HER2+ breast cancer are eligible if on ovarian suppression, or agreeable to mandatory ovarian suppression 9. HR+/HER2+ patients should be agreeable to concomitant treatment with fulvestrant per study protocol. Prior therapy with fulvestrant is allowed. 10. Patients should have received at least two FDA-approved HER2-targeted agents at any time in the course of their disease. Note: 1 line of therapy containing EGFR or HER2-tyrosine kinase inhibitors (for example, neratinib, tucatinib, lapatinib, afatinib, pyrotinib, etc.) in the metastatic setting is allowed 11. Measurable and/or evaluable disease per RECIST 1.1 criteria and/or RANO-BM criteria (appendix C). Bone only disease is allowed. 12. CNS inclusion criteria: Based on screening contrast brain MRI, patients must have one of the following: 1. No evidence of brain metastases 2. Untreated brain metastases not needing immediate local therapy. For patients with untreated CNS lesions > 2.0 cm on screening contrast brain MRI, discussion with and approval from the medical monitor is required prior to enrollment 3. Previously treated brain metastases a. Brain metastases previously treated with local therapy may either be stable since treatment or may have progressed since prior local CNS therapy, provided that there is no clinical indication for immediate re-treatment with local therapy in the opinion of the investigator b. Patients treated with CNS local therapy for newly identified lesions found on contrast brain MRI performed during screening for this study may be eligible to enroll if all of the following criteria are met: i. Time since WBRT is ≥ 21 days prior to first dose of treatment, time since surgical resection of CNS metastases is ≥ 14 days prior to the first dose of study treatment, or time since SRS is ≥ 7 days prior to first dose of treatment. ii. Other sites of disease evaluable by RECIST 1.1 or RANO-BM are present c. Relevant records of any CNS treatment must be available to allow for classification of target and non-target lesions. 13. Adequate organ and marrow function as defined below:
• Absolute neutrophil count ≥ 1,500/mm3
• Platelets ≥ 75,000/mm3
• Hemoglobin ≥ 9.0 mg/dL without red blood cell transfusion ≤ 7 days prior to Cycle 1 Day 1 of therapy
• Total serum bilirubin ≤ 1.5 X upper limit of normal (ULN) except for subjects with known Gilbert's disease, who may enroll if the conjugated bilirubin is ≤ 1.5 ULN
• AST (SGOT)/ALT (SGPT) ≤2.5 X ULN;
• Serum creatinine Estimated creatinine clearance ≥50 mL/min as calculated by Cockroft-Gault formula; actual body weight must be used for creatinine clearance calculations unless BMI > 30 kg/m2 then lean body weight must be used;≤ 1.5 mg/dL
• International normalized ratio (INR) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) ≤ 1.5 X ULN unless on medication known to alter INR and aPTT
• Fasting blood glucose ≤140 mg/dL
• HbA1C≤6.4%
• Left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) ≥ 50% (as assessed by ECHO or MUGA) documented within 4 weeks prior to first dose of study treatment
• Serum or urine pregnancy test (for women of childbearing potential, defined as premenopausal women who are not permanently sterile due to hysterectomy, bilateral oophorectomy, bilateral tubal ligation, or bilateral tubal occlusion) negative ≤ 7 days of starting treatment 14. Patients with body mass index >25, or FBG 110-140mg/dL, or HbA1C 5.7
•6.4% should be agreeable for low glycemic diet and lifestyle modifications, and consulted by nutritionist prior to initiation of the study drugs. Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent and comply with the study scheduled visits, treatment plans, laboratory tests and other procedures. Exclusion criteria: 1. Patients with contraindications to undergo contrast MRI imaging of the brain are excluded from the study 2. Pregnancy or breast feeding 3. Any systemic anti-cancer therapy (including hormonal therapy or investigational agents) or surgery in <14 days prior to the first dose of study treatment WBRT in <21 days, SBRT for CNS disease in <7 days, or palliative radiation to extracranial sites in <14 days prior to the first dose of study treatment5. 4. Based on screening brain MRI, patients must not have any of the following: 1. Any untreated brain lesions > 2.0 cm in size, unless discussed with medical monitor and approval for enrollment is given 2. Ongoing use of systemic corticosteroids for control of symptoms of brain metastases at a total daily dose of > 2 mg of dexamethasone (or equivalent). However, patients on a chronic stable dose of ≤ 2 mg total daily of dexamethasone (or equivalent) may be eligible with discussion and approval by the medical monitor 3. Any brain lesion thought to require immediate local therapy, including (but not limited to) a lesion in an anatomic site where increase in size or possible treatment-related edema may pose risk to patient (e.g. brain stem lesions). Patients who undergo local treatment for such lesions identified by screening contrast brain MRI may still be eligible for the study based on criteria described under CNS inclusion criteria 3b 4. Known or suspected leptomeningeal disease as documented by the investigator 5. Have poorly controlled (> 1/week) generalized or complex partial seizures, or manifest neurologic progression due to brain metastases notwithstanding CNS-directed therapy 5. Any toxicity related to prior cancer therapies that has not resolved to ≤ Grade 1, with the exception of peripheral neuropathy, which must have resolved to ≤ Grade 2, and alopecia 6. More than 1 line of therapy containing tucatinib, lapatinib, neratinib, afatinib, pyrotinib, or other EGFR or HER2 tyrosine kinase inhibitor in the metastatic setting. Note: receiving the above medications for <30 days is not considered to be a "line of therapy". Adjuvant treatment with EGFR or HER2 tyrosine kinase inhibitors does not count. 7. Previous treatment with alpelisib or other PI3K, mTOR or AKT inhibitor of more than 30 days duration. 8. An established diagnosis of diabetes mellitus type I, or uncontrolled diabetes mellitus type II 9. History of acute pancreatitis within 1 year of screening, or a past medical history of chronic pancreatitis 10. History of severe cutaneous hypersensitivity reactions (Steven Johnson syndrome, erythema multiforme or toxic epidermal necrolysis) 11. Active bacterial, fungal or viral infections requiring treatment with IV antibiotic, IV anti-fungal, or IV anti-viral drugs 12. Known active hepatitis B (HBV) or, active hepatitis C (HCV) or human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infections. Note: pretesting is not required. Patients with history of treated and cured HCV infection may enroll if they have documented undetectable viral load. 13. Known HIV infection with CD4+ T-cell (CD4+) counts < 350 cells/μL. Note: pretesting is not required. Patients with known HIV infection and CD4+ T-cell (CD4+) counts ≥ 350 cells/μL may enroll. 14. Inability to swallow pills or any significant gastrointestinal disease which would preclude the adequate oral absorption of medications 15. Use of prohibited medications listed in the Appendix D (strong CYP3A4 inducers or inhibitors, and strong CYP2C8 inducers or inhibitors) within 3 elimination half-lives prior to initiation of study treatments 16. Myocardial infarction, severe/unstable angina, percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty/stenting (PTCA), or coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) within 6 month of the first dose of the study treatment 17. Clinically significant cardio-vascular disease, such as ventricular arrhythmia requiring therapy, uncontrolled hypertension (defined as persistent systolic blood pressure > 160 mm Hg and/or diastolic blood pressure > 100 mm Hg on antihypertensive medications), or any history of symptomatic congestive heart failure (CHF) 18. Other severe acute or chronic medical or psychiatric conditions or laboratory abnormalities that may increase the risk associated with study participation or study drug administration, or may interfere with the interpretation of study results, or in the judgment of the investigator would make the subject inappropriate for entry into the study.

Key
• Disease:
• Part A: Individuals with histologically or cytologically confirmed advanced solid tumors who have received, been intolerant to, or been ineligible for all treatment known to confer clinical benefit.
• Part B: Individuals with histologically or cytologically confirmed select indications who have received, been intolerant to, or been ineligible for all treatment known to confer clinical benefit.
• Part C: Individuals with histologically or cytologically confirmed advanced solid tumors who have received, been intolerant to, or been ineligible for all treatments known to confer clinical benefit or whose disease is indicated for anti- programmed cell death protein 1 or programmed cell death ligand 1 (PD-[L]1) monoclonal antibody monotherapy.
• Part D: Individuals with pathologically confirmed select advanced solid tumors.
• Part E: Individuals with pathologically confirmed select advanced solid tumors. Participants must have received, have been intolerant to, or have been ineligible for all treatment known to confer clinical benefit.
• Part F: Individuals with pathologically-confirmed select advanced solid tumors. Participants must have received, have been intolerant to, or have been ineligible for all treatments known to confer clinical benefit; or, for participants who will undergo combination therapy, have disease which is indicated for anti-PD-(L)1 mAb monotherapy.
• Measurable disease per Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) v1.1
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status 0, 1, or 2 for individuals in Parts A, B, and C, and 0 or 1 for individuals in Parts D, E, and F.
• Adequate organ function.
• Male individuals and female individuals of childbearing potential who engage in heterosexual intercourse must agree to use methods of contraception.
• Tissue requirement:
• Parts A, C, D, E and F: Must provide pre-treatment adequate tumor tissue sample prior to enrollment.
• Part B and select participants in Parts C and F: Must have fresh pre-treatment and on-treatment biopsies for biomarker analysis. Key
• Concurrent anticancer treatment.
• Any anti-cancer therapy, whether investigational or approved, within protocol specified time prior to initiation of study including: immunotherapy or biologic therapy (< 28 days), chemotherapy (< 21 days), targeted small molecule therapy (< 14 days), hormonal therapy or other adjunctive therapy (< 14 days) or radiotherapy (< 21 days).
• Any prior CCR8 directed therapy.
• Prior allogeneic tissue/solid organ transplantation, including allogeneic stem cell transplantation. Exception: prior corneal transplant without requirement for systemic immunosuppressive agents is allowed.
• Concurrent active malignancy other than nonmelanoma skin cancer, curatively resected carcinoma in situ, localized prostate cancer, or superficial bladder cancer after undergoing potentially curative therapy with no evidence of disease. Individuals with other previous malignancies are eligible if disease-free for > 2 years.
• History of intolerance, hypersensitivity, or treatment discontinuation due to severe immune-related adverse events (irAEs) on prior immunotherapy.
• History of autoimmune disease or active autoimmune disease requiring systemic treatment within 2 years.
• History of pneumonitis, interstitial lung disease, or severe radiation pneumonitis (excluding localized radiation pneumonitis).
• Active and clinically relevant bacterial, fungal, or viral infection that is not controlled or requires IV antibiotics.
• Active hepatitis B virus (HBV) and/or hepatitis C virus (HCV), and/or human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
• Positive serum pregnancy test or breastfeeding female.
• Live vaccines within 30 days prior to first dose.
• Significant cardiovascular disease. Note: Other protocol defined Inclusion/Exclusion criteria may apply.