• Patients must have undergone complete surgical resection of their stage IB (>= 4 cm), II, or non-squamous IIIA NSCLC per American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) 7th edition and have had negative margins; N3 disease is not allowed
• Baseline chest computed tomography (CT) with or without contrast must be performed within 6 months (180 days) prior to randomization to ensure no evidence of disease; if clinically indicated additional imaging studies must be performed to rule out metastatic disease
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status 0 or 1
• Patients must be registered to the ALCHEMIST-SCREEN (ALLIANCE A151216) trial prior to randomization
• Positive for translocation or inversion events involving the ALK gene locus (e.g. resulting in echinoderm microtubule associated protein like 4 [EML4]-ALK fusion) as determined by the Vysis Break Point fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) assay and defined by an increase in the distance between 5? and 3? ALK probes or the loss of the 5? probe; this must have been performed:
• By a local Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified laboratory: report must indicate the results as well as the CLIA number of the laboratory which performed the assay; tissue must be available for submission for central, retrospective confirmation of the ALK fusion status via ALCHEMIST-SCREEN (ALLIANCE A151216) OR
• Patient registered to and the ALK fusion status performed centrally on the ALCHEMIST-SCREEN (ALLIANCE A151216)
• Women must not be pregnant or breast-feeding
• All females of childbearing potential must have a blood or urine pregnancy test within 72 hours prior to randomization to rule out pregnancy; a female of childbearing potential is any woman, regardless of sexual orientation or whether they have undergone tubal ligation, who meets the following criteria: 1) has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or 2) has not been naturally postmenopausal for at least 24 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 24 consecutive months)
• Women of childbearing potential and sexually active males must be strongly advised to practice abstinence or use an accepted and effective method of contraception
• Patients must NOT have uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to, serious ongoing or active infection, symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, uncontrolled cardiac arrhythmia, or psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements
• No known interstitial fibrosis or interstitial lung disease
• No prior treatment with crizotinib or another ALK inhibitor
• No ongoing cardiac dysrhythmias of grade >= 2 National Cancer Institute (NCI) Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) version 4.0, uncontrolled atrial fibrillation (any grade), or corrected QT (QTc) interval > 470 msec
• No use of medications, herbals, or foods that are known potent cytochrome P450, subfamily 3A, polypeptide 4 (CYP3A4) inhibitors or inducers, included but not limited to those outlined
• Patients must be adequately recovered from surgery at the time of randomization
• The minimum time requirement between date of surgery and randomization must be at least 4 weeks (28 days)
• The maximum time requirement between surgery and randomization must be:
• 3 months (90 days) if no adjuvant chemotherapy was administered
• 8 months (240 days) if adjuvant chemotherapy was administered
• 10 months (300 days) if adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation therapy were administered
• Patients must have completed any prior adjuvant chemotherapy or radiation therapy 2 or more weeks (6 or more weeks for mitomycin and nitrosoureas) prior to randomization and be adequately recovered at the time of randomization
• NOTE: Patients taking low dose methotrexate for non-malignant conditions and other cytotoxic agents for non-malignant conditions are allowed to continue treatment while on study
• NOTE: Neo-adjuvant chemotherapy or radiation therapy for the resected lung cancer is not permitted
• Serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 2.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN)
• Total serum bilirubin =< 1.5 x ULN
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1500/mm^3
• Platelets >= 30,000/mm^3
• Hemoglobin >= 8.0 g/dL
• Serum creatinine =< 2 x ULN
• Prior to randomization patients with any non-hematologic toxicity from surgery, chemotherapy, or radiation must have recovered to grade =< 1 with the exception of alopecia and the criteria outlined
• Patients must not have any history of locally advanced or metastatic cancer requiring systemic therapy within 5 years from randomization, with the exception of in-situ carcinomas and non-melanoma skin cancer; patients must have no previous primary lung cancer diagnosed concurrently or within the past 2 years
• Patients may not be receiving any other investigational agents while on study

• PATIENT PRE-REGISTRATION ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA:
• For pre-surgical patients
• Suspected diagnosis of resectable non-small cell lung cancer; cancers with a histology of "adenosquamous" are considered a type of adenocarcinoma and thus a "nonsquamous" histology; patients with squamous cell carcinoma are eligible
• Suspected clinical stage of IIIA, II (IIA or IIB) or large IB (defined as size >= 4 cm); Note: IB tumors < 4 cm are NOT eligible; stage IB cancer based on pleural invasion is not eligible unless the tumor size is >= 4 cm; the 7th edition of American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) staging will be utilized
• For post-surgical patients
• Completely resected non-small cell lung cancer with negative margins (R0); patients with squamous cell carcinoma are eligible only if they have not received adjuvant therapy
• Pathologic stage IIIA, II (IIA or IIB) or large IB (defined as size >= 4 cm); Note: IB tumors < 4 cm are NOT eligible; stage IB cancer based on pleural invasion is not eligible unless the tumor size is >= 4 cm; the 7th edition of AJCC staging will be utilized
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status 0-1
• Age ≥ 18 years
• No patients who have received neoadjuvant therapy (chemo- or radio-therapy) for this lung cancer
• No locally advanced or metastatic cancer requiring systemic therapy within 5 years prior to registration; no secondary primary lung cancer diagnosed concurrently or within 2 year prior to registration
• No prior treatment with agents targeting EGFR mutation, ALK rearrangement, and PD-1/PD-L1/CTLA-4
• No patients known to be pregnant or lactating
• Patients who have had local genotyping are eligible, regardless of the local result
• No patients with recurrence of lung cancer after prior resection
• Note: Post-surgical patients should proceed to registration immediately following preregistration
• PATIENT REGISTRATION ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA:
• Tissue available for the required analyses (either clinical tissue block or slides and scrolls)
• Completely resected NSCLC with negative margins (R0); cancers with a histology of "adenosquamous" are considered a type of adenocarcinoma and thus a "nonsquamous" histology
• Pathologic stage IIIA, IIA or IIB, or large IB (defined as size >= 4 cm); Note: IB tumors < 4 cm are NOT eligible; stage IB cancer based on pleural invasion is not eligible unless the tumor size is >= 4 cm; the 7th edition of AJCC staging will be utilized
• Patients with squamous cell carcinoma are eligible only if they have not received adjuvant therapy
• In order to allow for time for central genotyping and eligibility for the ALCHEMIST treatment trial, patients must register within the following eligibility windows:
• Squamous patients:
• No adjuvant therapy permitted, register patient within 77 days following surgery
• Non-squamous patients:
• If no adjuvant therapy, register patient within 75 days following surgery
• If adjuvant chemotherapy or radiotherapy only, register patient within 225 days following surgery
• If adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation, register patient within 285 days following surgery

1. Participant is < 21 years of age 2. Parent/ Legal Guardian/ Adult Participant can understand the consent process and is willing to provide informed consent/HIPAA: 3. (a) Participant is receiving one or more of the study drugs of interest at the time of enrollment or (b) Participant is NOT receiving one or more of the study drugs of interest but is SARS-COV-2 positive within 60 days prior to enrollment 1. Participant has a known pregnancy Below exclusion criteria apply only to: Participants receiving one or more of the study drugs of interest at the time of enrollment, DOI administration or PK sampling: (Refer to DOI specific appendices for details on enrollment cohort specifications and additional eligibility criteria) 2. Has had intermittent dialysis within previous 24 hours 3. Has had a kidney transplant within previous 30 days 4. Has had a liver transplant within previous 1 year 5. Has had a stem cell transplant within previous 1 year 6. Has had therapeutic hypothermia within previous 24 hours 7. Has had plasmapheresis within the previous 24 hours 8. Has a Ventricular Assist Device 9. Has any condition which would make the participant, in the opinion of the investigator, unsuitable for the study

• Patients with SMA, genetically confirmed on or after 24 May 2018.
• Appropriate consent/assent has been obtained for participation in the registry
•Currently enrolled in an interventional clinical trial involving an investigational medicinal product to treat SMA. Note: Patients that are participating in a Compassionate Use Program (CUP) for AVXS-101 (Zolgensma) such as a Managed Access Program (MAP), an Expanded Access Program (EAP), Single Patient Investigational New Drug (IND) (SPI) or Named Patient Program (NPP) are eligible to enroll in the registry regardless of the date of genetic confirmation of SMA.

• Received at least one gene-modified (GM) T-cell infusion in a previous Celgene sponsored or Celgene alliance partner-sponsored study, and have discontinued, or completed the post-treatment follow-up period in the parent treatment protocol, as applicable.
• Must understand and voluntarily sign an Informed Consent Form/Informed Assent Form prior to any study-related assessments/procedures being conducted. Not Applicable Other protocol-defined inclusion/exclusion criteria apply

1. Written informed consent (and assent when applicable) obtained from subject or subject's legal representative 2. Enrolled in the CFFPR 3. Male or female ≥ 4 months of age on day of study visit 4. Diagnosis of CF. 5. Current treatment with a prescribed commercially approved CFTR modulator for at least 90 days prior to enrollment 6. Able to perform the testing and procedures required for this study, as judged by the investigator Additional Inclusion Criteria for CHEC-PKPD Sub-Study: 1. Male or female ≥ 6 years of age on day of study visit. 2. Current treatment with elexacaftor/tezacaftor/ivacaftor for at least 90 days prior to enrollment. 3. Last dose of elexacaftor/tezacaftor/ivacaftor taken at least 24hours and last dose of ivacaftor taken at least 12 hours prior to trough blood draw on day of visit. 1. Presence of a condition or abnormality that, in the opinion of the Investigator, would compromise the safety of the patient or the quality of the data 2. Currently enrolled in an investigational trial (including open-label follow-on studies and Early Access Programs (EAP) of an agent expected to have an impact on sweat chloride (refer to current list provided on study website)

Major 1. Men and women 18 years of age or older. 2. 9 cohorts will be enrolled:
• Cohort A1 / Exon 14 NSCLC MET inhibitor naive in first line: Histologically or cytologically confirmed NSCLC with Exon 14 skipping mutations; all histologies; unresectable or metastatic disease (Stage 3b/4); treatment-naive subjects in first line; not received any MET inhibitor and no known MET kinase inhibitor resistance mutations
• Cohort A2 / Exon 14 NSCLC
•MET inhibitor naïve: Histologically or cytologically confirmed NSCLC with Exon 14 skipping mutations; all histologies; unresectable or metastatic disease (Stage 3b/4); pretreated subjects refractory to or intolerant of standard therapies with no more than three lines of prior therapy in the unresectable or metastatic setting; not received any MET inhibitor and no known MET kinase inhibitor resistance mutations
• Cohort B / Exon 14 NSCLC MET inhibitor experienced: ENROLLMENT COMPLETED
• Cohort C / MET amplification basket tumor types excluding primary CNS tumors: Any solid tumor type regardless of histology excluding primary CNS tumors, with MET amplification; unresectable or metastatic disease, refractory to or intolerant of standard therapies, or refused standard therapies, or if therapy was unavailable or unfeasible, with no more than 3 prior lines of therapy in the unresectable or metastatic setting; not received any MET inhibitor and no known MET kinase inhibitor resistance mutations
• Cohort C1 / MET amplification and wild-type EGFR NSCLC: NSCLC regardless of histology, harboring MET amplification and wild-type EGFR; unresectable or metastatic disease, previously untreated or treated with no more than 3 prior lines of therapy in the unresectable or metastatic setting; not received any MET inhibitor and no known MET kinase inhibitor resistance mutations
• Cohort C2 / EGFR positive NSCLC with acquired MET amplification (APL-101 Add-on Therapy): Unresectable or metastatic NSCLC regardless of histology, harboring EGFR activating mutations with acquired MET-Amplification as resistance mechanism to the EGFR-I; developed resistance to first-line EGFR-inhibitor therapy after an initial response (documented PR for at least 12 weeks); radiological documentation of disease progression per RECIST on first-line EGFR inhibitor therapy; currently on an EGFR-inhibitor therapy and agrees to receive APL-101 as an add-on therapy during the study; no history of interstitial lung disease (ILD)/pneumonitis, Grade ≥3 liver toxicity or QT prolongation with EGFR-I therapy; not received any MET inhibitor and no known MET kinase inhibitor resistance mutations
• Cohort D / MET fusion basket tumor types excluding primary CNS tumors: any solid tumor type regardless of histology excluding primary CNS tumors; unresectable or metastatic disease, refractory to or intolerant of standard therapies, or refused standard therapies, or if therapy was unavailable or unfeasible, with no more than 3 prior lines of therapy in the unresectable or metastatic setting; not received any MET inhibitor and no known MET kinase inhibitor resistance mutations
• Cohort E / Primary CNS tumors with MET alterations: subjects with primary CNS tumors who meet inclusion criteria of MET dysregulations defined as single or co-occurred MET fusion including PTPRZ1-MET (ZM) fusion, MET Exon 14 skipping mutations, or MET amplification; refractory to or intolerant of standard therapies, or refused standard therapies, or if therapy was unavailable or unfeasible, with no more than 3 prior lines of therapy in the unresectable or metastatic setting; not received any MET inhibitor and no known MET kinase inhibitor resistance mutations; neurological symptoms controlled on a stable/decreasing dose of steroids for at least 2 weeks before C1D1
• Cohort F / Basket tumor types harboring wild-type MET with over-expression of HGF and MET: any solid tumor type regardless of histology harboring wild-type MET with overexpression of HGF and MET; Unresectable or metastatic disease, refractory to or intolerant of standard therapies, or refused standard therapies, or if therapy was unavailable or unfeasible, with no more than 3 prior lines of therapy in the unresectable or metastatic setting; not received any MET inhibitor and no known MET kinase inhibitor resistance mutations 3. Treated or untreated asymptomatic parenchymal CNS disease or leptomeningeal disease is allowed. 4. Presence of ≥1 measurable lesion (scan done ≤28 days of C1D1) to serve as target lesion according to relevant criteria 5. ECOG performance status of 0-1. For subjects with primary CNS tumors, KPS score ≥70. 6. Acceptable organ function 7. For all prior anticancer treatment, a duration of 30 days or 5 half-lives of the agents used, whichever is shorter, must have elapsed, and any encountered toxicity must have resolved to levels meeting all the other eligibility criteria prior to the first dose of study treatment. Palliative radiotherapy to non-target lesions should be completed within 2 weeks prior to APL-101 administration. 8. Adequate cardiac function 9. Women of child-bearing potential must have a negative serum or Beta-hCG at screening or evidence of surgical sterility or evidence of post-menopausal status 10. No planned major surgery within 4 weeks of first dose of APL-101 11. Expected survival (life expectancy) ≥ 3 months from C1D1 12. Provision of sample; e.g. archival or a fresh tumor biopsy sample (if safe and feasible) either from the primary or a metastatic site) or liquid biopsy sample (if tumor tissue is insufficient or lacking, and approved by the sponsor) is required for prospective central lab confirmation for study entry (subjects with previously confirmed molecular status by the Sponsor designated central lab or FDA approved NGS based MET testing may be exempted, subjected to Sponsor approval. Major 1. Hypersensitivity to APL-101, excipients of the drug product, or other components of the study treatment regimen. 2. Known actionable mutation/gene rearrangement of EGFR (except for NSCLC subjects in Cohort C and C-2), ALK, ROS1, RET, NTRK, KRAS, and BRAF. 3. Use or intended use of any other investigational product, including herbal medications, through Study Treatment Termination. 4. Active uncontrolled systemic bacterial, viral, or fungal infection or clinically significant, active disease process, which in the opinion of the investigator makes the risk: benefit unfavorable for the participation of the trial. 5. Life-threatening illness, significant organ system dysfunction or comorbid conditions, or other reasons that, in the investigator's opinion, could compromise the subject's safety or the integrity of the study outcomes, or interfere with the absorption or metabolism of APL-101. 6. Unstable angina or myocardial infarction within 1 year prior to first dose of APL-101, symptomatic or unstable arrhythmia requiring medical therapy, history of congenital prolonged QT syndrome, prolonged QT interval corrected by Fridericia formula (QTcF) at screening, or concurrent treatment with a medication that is a known risk for prolonging the QT interval. Chronic controlled atrial fibrillation is not excluded. 7. Historical seropositive results consistent with active infection for hepatitis C virus (HCV) or hepatitis B virus (HBV) with high viral loads not actively managed with antiviral therapy and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive subjects who are not clinically stable or controlled on their medication (asymptomatic subjects with CD4+ T-cell (CD4+) counts ≥ 350 cells/μL and have not had an opportunistic infection within the past 12 months prior to first dose of APL-101 would be eligible for study entry. If history is unclear, relevant test(s) at Screening will be required to confirm eligibility. 8. Known significant mental illness or other conditions such as active alcohol or other substance abuse that, in the opinion of the investigator, predisposes the subject to high risk of noncompliance with the protocol treatment or assessments. 9. Unable to swallow orally administered medication whole. 10. Impairment of gastrointestinal function or gastrointestinal disease that may significantly alter drug absorption 11. Women who are breastfeeding 12. History of another malignancy within 3 years prior to C1D1. A subject with the following malignancies is allowed if considered cured or unlikely to recur within 3 years: 1. Carcinoma of the skin without melanomatous features. 2. Curatively treated cervical carcinoma in situ. 3. Bladder tumors considered superficial such as noninvasive (T1a) and carcinoma in situ (T1s), thyroid papillary cancer with prior treatment, prostate cancer which has been surgically or medically treated and not likely to recur within 3 years. 13. Subjects who are unable or unwilling to discontinue excluded medications (drugs with known QTc risk and known strong cytochrome P450 [CYP]3A4 inducer and/or strong inhibitors) for at least 5 half-lives prior to first dose of study drug. Subjects may qualify if such medication(s) can be safely replaced with alternate medications with less risk of drug-drug interaction. 14. Subjects with active COVID-19 infection. 15. Symptomatic and/or neurologically unstable CNS metastases, or who require an increase in steroid dose to control CNS disease. Subjects who have been receiving a stable steroid dose for at least 2 weeks prior to C1D1 may be allowed.

1. Parent/guardian must be able to understand and provide signed and dated written informed consent; he/she must also be able to communicate with study staff. 2. 24-47 months of age at randomization 3. 2-4 wheezing episodes in the past year 4. positive allergy to aeroallergen 5. first degree relative with history or current diagnosis of asthma or allergy 6. If is participating in a food immunotherapy treatment that is not part of a clinical trial, has been on an established maintenance regimen implemented continuously for a minimum of 2 months. 1. >4 episodes of wheezing in the past year 2. Use of Step 5 or Step 6 therapy (ICS plus LABA ) at the time of enrollment (Visit 0). 3. Need for systemic corticosteroids or a hospitalization for respiratory symptoms within four weeks prior to screening. 4. Three or more courses of systemic corticosteroids for wheezing illnesses in the last year 5. More than four days of symptoms of wheezing, or tightness in the chest or cough in the past two weeks causing at least minimal limitation of activity 6. More than four days of albuterol treatment (for symptoms) in the past two weeks 7. More than one night of symptoms of wheezing, or tightness in the chest or cough causing sleep disruption in the past two weeks 8. More than one night of albuterol treatment (for symptoms) in the past two weeks 9. Prematurity (<34 weeks gestation) 10. Need for oxygen for more than 5 days in the neonatal period 11. History of intubation or mechanical ventilation for respiratory illness 12. Other significant medical conditions, including: major congenital anomalies, cystic fibrosis, chronic pulmonary diseases, bronchopulmonary dysplasia, thoracic surgery, history of tuberculosis, immunodeficiency (primary or secondary), seizure disorders 13. Expecting to relocate within 4 years of study initiation to a place which would make in-person clinical visits impossible 14. Deemed unable to adhere to study activities 15. Prior aeroallergen immunotherapy or use of biologics including anti-IgE 16. Prior IVIG or systemic immunosuppressant other than corticosteroids 17. History of hypoxic seizures during a wheezing episode 18. Total IgE outside of the omalizumab dosing range. 19. Enrolled in any clinical medication trial within the past 30 days. 20. With platelet counts < 150 x 109/L at the Screening Visit (V0) 21. Past or current medical problems or findings from physical examination or laboratory testing that are not listed above, which, in the opinion of the investigator, may pose additional risks from participation in the study, may interfere with the participant's ability to comply with study requirements or may impact the quality or interpretation of the data obtained from the study. 22. History of severe anaphylactic/anaphylactoid reactions from any cause

General Inclusion Criteria 1. Patients ≥35 years old. 2. Carotid stenosis defined as:
• Stenosis ≥70% by catheter angiography (NASCET Criteria); OR
• by DUS with ≥70% stenosis defined by a peak systolic velocity of at least 230 cm/s plus at least one of the following: 1. an end diastolic velocity ≥100 cm/s, or 2. internal carotid/common carotid artery peak systolic velocity ratio ≥4.0, or 3. CTA with ≥ 70% stenosis, or 4. MRA with ≥ 70% stenosis. 3. No medical history of stroke or TIA ipsilateral to the stenosis within 180 days of randomization. Life-long asymptomatic patients will be defined as having no medical history of stroke or transient ischemic attack and negative responses to all of the symptom items on the Questionnaire for Verifying Stroke-free Status (QVSS).18 4. Patients must have a modified Rankin Scale score of 0 or 1 at the time of informed consent. 5. Women must not be of childbearing potential or, if of childbearing potential, have a negative pregnancy test prior to randomization. 6. Patients must agree to comply with all protocol-specified follow-up appointments. 7. Patients must sign a consent form that has been approved by the local governing Institutional Review Board (IRB)/Medical Ethics Committee (MEC) of the respective clinical site. 8. Randomization to treatment group will apply to only one carotid artery for patients with bilateral carotid stenosis. Management of the non-randomized stenosis may be done in accordance with local PI recommendation. Treatment of the non-study internal carotid artery must take place at least 30 days prior to randomization, or greater than 44 days after randomization and 30 days after the study procedure is completed (whichever is longer). 9. Carotid stenosis must be treatable with CEA, CAS, or either procedure. General Exclusion Criteria 1. Intolerance or allergic reaction to a study medication without a suitable management alternative. 2. GI hemorrhage within 1 month prior to enrollment that would preclude antiplatelet therapy. 3. Prior major ipsilateral stroke in the past with substantial residual disability (mRS ≥ 2) that is likely to confound study outcomes. 4. Severe dementia. 5. History of major symptomatic intracranial hemorrhage within 12 months that was not related to anticoagulation. 6. Prior Intracranial hemorrhage that the investigator believes represents a contraindication to the perioperative or periprocedural antithrombotic and antiplatelet treatments necessary to complete endarterectomy or stenting per protocol. 7. Current neurologic illness characterized by fleeting or fixed neurologic deficits that cannot be distinguished from TIA or stroke. 8. Patient objects to future blood transfusions. 9. Platelet count <100,000/microliter or history of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. 10. Anticoagulation with Phenprocoumon (Marcumar®), warfarin, or a direct thrombin inhibitor, or anti-Xa agents. 11. Chronic atrial fibrillation. 12. Any episode of atrial fibrillation within the past 6 months or history of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation that is deemed to require chronic anticoagulation. 13. Other high-risk cardiac sources of emboli, including left ventricular aneurysm, severe cardiomyopathy, aortic or mitral mechanical heart valve, severe calcific aortic stenosis (valve area < 1.0 cm2), endocarditis, moderate to severe mitral stenosis, left atrial thrombus, or any intracardiac mass, or known unrepaired PFO with prior paradoxical embolism. 14. Unstable angina defined as rest angina with ECG changes that is not amenable to revascularization (patients should undergo planned coronary revascularization at least 30 days before randomization). 15. Left Ventricular Ejection fraction <30% or admission for heart failure in prior 6 months. 16. Respiratory insufficiency with life expectancy < 4 years or FEV1 <30% of predicted value. 17. Known malignancy other than basal cell non-melanoma skin cancer. There are two exceptions to this rule: patients with prior cancer treatment and no recurrence for >5 years are eligible for enrollment and cancer patients with life expectancy of greater than 5 years are eligible for enrollment. 18. Any major surgery, major trauma, revascularization procedure, or acute coronary syndrome within the past 1 month. 19. Either the serum creatinine is ≥ 2.5 mg/dl or the estimated GFR is < 30 cc/min. 20. Major (non-carotid) surgery/procedures planned within 3 months after enrollment. 21. Currently listed or being evaluated for major organ transplantation (i.e. heart, lung, liver, kidney). 22. Actively participating in another drug or aortic arch or cerebrovascular device trial for which participation in CREST-2 would be compromised with regard to follow-up assessment of outcomes or continuation in CREST-2. 23. Inability to understand and cooperate with study procedures or provide informed consent. 24. Non-atherosclerotic carotid stenosis (dissection, fibromuscular dysplasia, or stenosis following radiation therapy). 25. Previous ipsilateral CEA or CAS. 26. Ipsilateral internal or common carotid artery occlusion. 27. Intra-carotid floating thrombus. 28. Ipsilateral intracranial aneurysm > 5 mm. 29. Extreme morbid obesity that would compromise patient safety during the procedure or would compromise patient safety during the periprocedural period. 30. Coronary artery disease with two or more proximal or major diseased coronary arteries with 70% stenosis that have not, or cannot, be revascularized. Specific carotid endarterectomy exclusion criteria Patients who are being considered for revascularization by CEA must not have any of the following criteria: 1. Serious adverse reaction to anesthesia not able to be overcome by pre-medication. 2. Distal/intracranial stenosis greater than index lesion. 3. Any of the following anatomical: radical neck dissection; surgically inaccessible lesions (e.g. above cervical spine level 2 (C2)); adverse neck anatomy that limits surgical exposure (e.g. spinal immobility
•inability to flex neck beyond neutral or kyphotic deformity, or short obese neck); presence of tracheostomy stoma; laryngeal nerve palsy contralateral to target vessel; or previous extracranial-intracranial or subclavian bypass procedure ipsilateral to the target vessel. Specific Carotid Artery Stenting Exclusion Criteria Patients who are being considered for revascularization by CAS must not have any of the following criteria: 1. Allergy to intravascular contrast dye not amenable to pre-medication. 2. Type III, aortic arch anatomy. 3. Angulation or tortuosity (≥ 90 degree) of the innominate and common carotid artery that precludes safe, expeditious sheath placement or that will transmit a severe loop to the internal carotid after sheath placement. 4. Severe angulation or tortuosity of the internal carotid artery (including calyceal origin from the carotid bifurcation) that precludes safe deployment of embolic protection device or stent. Severe tortuosity is defined as 2 or more ≥ 90 degree angles within 4 cm of the target stenosis. 5. Proximal/ostial CCA, innominate stenosis or distal/intracranial stenosis greater than index lesion. Excessive circumferential calcification of the stenotic lesion defined as >3mm thickness of calcification seen in orthogonal views on fluoroscopy.(Note: Anatomic considerations such as tortuosity, arch anatomy, and calcification must be evaluated even more carefully in elderly subjects (≥ 70 years).) 6. Target ICA vessel reference diameter <4.0 mm or >9.0 mm. Target ICA measurements may be made from angiography of the contralateral artery. The reference diameter must be appropriate for the devices to be used. 7. Inability to deploy or utilize an FDA-approved Embolic Protection Device (EPD). 8. Non-contiguous lesions and long lesions (>3 cm). 9. Qualitative characteristics of stenosis and stenosis-length of the carotid bifurcation (common carotid) and/or ipsilateral external carotid artery, that preclude safe sheath placement. 10. Occlusive or critical ilio-femoral disease including severe tortuosity or stenosis that necessitates additional endovascular procedures to facilitate access to the aortic arch or that prevents safe and expeditious femoral access to the aortic arch. "String sign" of the ipsilateral common or internal carotid artery. 11. Angiographic, CT, MR or ultrasound evidence of severe atherosclerosis of the aortic arch or origin of the innominate or common carotid arteries that would preclude safe passage of the sheath and other endovascular devices to the target artery as needed for carotid stenting.

• Subjects with a PFO who have had an ischemic stroke within the last 547 days
• Atherosclerosis or other arteriopathy of the intracranial and extracranial vessels associated with a ≥ 50% lumen diameter supplying the involved lesion
• Intra-cardiac thrombus or tumor
• Documented evidence of venous thrombus in the vessels through which access to the PFO is gained
• Acute or recent (within 6 months prior to consent) myocardial infarction or unstable angina
• Left ventricular aneurysm or akinesis
• Mitral valve stenosis or severe mitral regurgitation requiring intervention irrespective of etiology
• Aortic valve stenosis (mean gradient >40 mmHg) or severe aortic valve regurgitation
• Mitral or aortic valve vegetation or prosthesis
• Aortic arch plaques protruding greater than 4mm into the aortic lumen
• Left ventricular dilated cardiomyopathy with depressed left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF less than 35%)
• Subjects with other source of right to left shunts, including an atrial septal defect and/or fenestrated septum
• Chronic, persistent, or paroxysmal atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter
• Pregnancy at the time of implant
• Age less than 18 years or greater than 60 years at time of consent
• Active endocarditis or other untreated infections
• Organ failure (kidney, liver or lung) Kidney failure: Poor urine output of less than 1 cc/kg/hr with elevated BUN levels (above the normal reference range for the laboratory at the investigational site). Liver failure: Liver enzymes outside the normal reference range for the laboratory at the investigational site: poor liver function as assessed by elevated PT (above the normal reference range for the laboratory at the investigational site) and low total protein and albumin (below the normal reference range for the laboratory at the investigational site). Lung failure: Respiratory failure is retention of carbon dioxide more than 60 mmHg, poor oxygenation with oxygen tension less than 40 mmHg in room air or the need for assisted ventilation.
• Uncontrolled hypertension defined as sustained elevated systemic blood pressure to more than 160/90 mmHg with medications
• Uncontrolled diabetes defined as continued elevated glucose levels in spite of administration of insulin/levels of more than 200 mg with presence of glucose in the urine
• Diagnosis of lacunar infarct probably due to intrinsic small vessel as qualifying stroke event Definition: Ischemic stroke in the distribution of a single, small deep penetrating vessel in a patient with any of the following: 1) a history of hypertension (except in the first week post stroke); 2) history of diabetes mellitus; 3) Age >/= 50; or 4) MRI or CT shows leukoaraiosis greater than symmetric, well-defined periventricular caps or bands (European Task Force on Age-Related White Matter Changes rating scale score > 0)
• Arterial dissection as cause of stroke
• Subjects who test positive with one of the following hypercoagulable states; Anticardiolipin Ab of the IgG or IgM (≥30), Lupus anticoagulant, B2-glycoprotein-1 antibodies (≥30) or persistently elevated homocysteine (>20)
• Unable to take antiplatelet therapy
• Anatomy in which the AMPLATZERTM PFO Occluder device size required would interfere with intracardiac or intravascular structures such as valves or pulmonary veins
• Vasculature, through which access to the PFO is gained, is inadequate to accommodate the appropriate sheath size
• Malignancy or other illness where life expectancy is less than 2 years
• Subjects who will not be available for follow-up for the duration of the trial
• Inability to obtain Informed Consent from patient
• Index stroke of poor outcome (modified Rankin score greater than 3)

1. Presence of thoracic aortic pathology deemed to warrant surgical repair which requires proximal graft placement in Zone 0-2. 2. Age ≥18 years at time of informed consent signature 3. Subject is capable of complying with protocol requirements, including follow-up 4. Informed Consent Form (ICF) is signed by Subject or legal representative 5. Must have appropriate proximal aortic landing zone. 6. Must have appropriate target branch vessel landing zone. 7. For patients with aneurysm/isolated lesion, must have appropriate distal aortic landing zone. 8. Native aortic valve (Zone 0/1 subjects only) 9. Subject is considered a high risk candidate for conventional open surgical repair at the discretion of the Investigator (Zone 0/1 subjects only) 1. Concomitant disease of the ascending aorta or aneurysm of the abdominal aorta requiring repair 2. Previous endovascular repair of the ascending aorta 3. Previous endovascular repair of the DTA with a non-Gore device 4. Surgery within 30 days prior to enrollment, with the exception of surgery for Ascending Aortic Dissection and/or placement of vascular conduit for access. 5. Infected aorta 6. Life expectancy <2 years 7. Myocardial infarction within 6 weeks prior to treatment 8. Stroke within 6 weeks prior to treatment, stroke defined as rapidly developing clinical signs of focal (or global) disturbance of cerebral function, lasting more than 24 hours or leading to death, with no apparent cause other than that of vascular origin. 9. Patient has a systemic infection and may be at increased risk of endovascular graft infection 10. Pregnant female at time of informed consent signature 11. Degenerative connective tissue disease, e.g. Marfan's or Ehler-Danlos Syndrome 12. Participation in another drug or medical device study within one year of study enrollment 13. Known history of drug abuse within one year of treatment 14. Presence of protruding and/or irregular thrombus and/or atheroma in the aortic arch or ascending aorta 15. Tortuous or stenotic iliac and/or femoral arteries preventing introducer sheath insertion and the inability to use a conduit for vascular access 16. Planned coverage of celiac artery 17. Patient has known sensitivities or allergies to the device materials 18. Patient has known hypersensitivity or contraindication to anticoagulants or contrast media, which is not amenable to pre-treatment 19. Previous instance of Heparin Induced Thrombocytopenia type 2 (HIT-2) or known hypersensitivity to heparin 20. Patient with a history of a hypercoagulability disorder and/or hypercoagulability state 21. Diameter taper outside of the device sizing range between proximal and distal landing zones of aorta and the inability to use additional devices of different diameters to compensate for the taper 22. Mycotic aneurysm 23. Persistent refractory shock (systolic blood pressure <90 mm Hg) 24. Patient has body habitus or other medical condition which prevents adequate visualization of the aorta 25. Renal failure defined as patients with an estimated Glomerular Filtration Rate (eGFR) <30 or currently requiring dialysis 26. Patient at high risk of neurological event, e.g. stroke

1. TIA with ABCD2 ≥4 or ischemic stroke, within the prior 14 days. 1. pre-event inability to perform all of own basic ADLs 2. unable to obtain informed consent from subject or legally authorized representative 3. incarcerated 4. known pregnancy 5. current mechanical ventilation (can enroll later if this resolves) or tracheostomy 6. current use of positive airway pressure, or use within one month prior to stroke 7. anatomical or dermatologic anomaly that makes use of CPAP interface unfeasible 8. severe bullous lung disease 9. history of prior spontaneous pneumothorax or current pneumothorax 10. hypotension requiring current treatment with pressors (can enroll later if this resolves) 11. other specific medical circumstances that conceivably, in the opinion of the site PI, could render the patient at risk of harm from use of CPAP 12. massive epistaxis or previous history of massive epistaxis 13. cranial surgery or head trauma within the past 6 months, with known or possible CSF leak or pneumocephalus 14. recent hemicraniectomy or suboccipital craniectomy (i.e. those whose bone has not yet been replaced), or any other recent bone removal procedure for relief of intracranial pressure 15. current receipt of oxygen supplementation >4 liters per minute 16. current contact, droplet, respiratory/airborne precautions

• Target population: greater than or equal to (>=) 18 (or the legal age of consent in the jurisdiction in which the study is taking place) years of age
• Target population: Symptomatic Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension (PAH) in World Health Organization Functional Class (WHO FC) II, III, or IV
• Target population: PAH subtype falling in one of the below classifications: Idiopathic; Heritable; Drug- or toxin-induced; Related to: Connective tissue disease, HIV infection, Portal hypertension, and Congenital heart disease with small/coincidental cardiac defect with systemic-to-pulmonary shunt (for example atrial septal defect, ventricular septal defect, patent ductus arteriosus, atrioventricular septal defect) which does not account for the elevated pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) or persistent PAH documented by an Right heart catheterization (RHC) >= 1 year after simple systemic-to pulmonary shunt repair
• PAH diagnosis confirmed by hemodynamic evaluation at rest at any time prior to screening: Mean pulmonary artery pressure (mPAP) greater than (>) 20 millimeters of mercury (mm Hg), and; Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) or left ventricular end diastolic pressure (LVEDP) less than or equal to (<=) 15 mm Hg, and PVR >= 3 Wood Units (that is, >= 240 dyn*sec/cm^5)
• Able to perform the 6-minute walking test (6MWT) with a minimum distance of 50 meters (m) and maximum distance of 440m at screening. Participants able to walk more than 440m at screening are eligible if they are in WHO FC III or IV and n-terminal prohormone of brain natriuretic peptide or n-terminal pro B-type natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP) level is >=300 nanograms per liter (ng/L) at screening, based on central laboratory results
• Known presence of three or more of the following risk factors for heart failure with preserved ejection fraction at screening, based on records that confirm documented medical history: Body mass index (BMI) > 30 kilograms per meter square (kg/m^2), Diabetes mellitus of any type, Essential hypertension (even if well controlled); Coronary artery disease, that is, any of the following: history of stable angina, or known more than 50 percent (%) stenosis in a coronary artery, or history of myocardial infarction, or history of or planned coronary artery bypass grafting and/or coronary artery stenting
• Presence of moderate or severe obstructive lung disease (forced expiratory volume in 1 second [FEV1] / forced vital capacity [FVC] < 70%; and FEV1 < 60% of predicted after bronchodilator administration) ) in participants with a known or suspected history of significant lung disease as documented by a spirometry test performed within 1 year prior to screening
• Known moderate to severe hepatic impairment, defined as Child-Pugh Class B or C, based on records that confirm documented medical history
• Serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and/or alanine aminotransferase (ALT) > 1.5*upper limit of normal (ULN) at screening
• Hemoglobin < 100 gram per liter (g/L) (< 10 gram per deciliter [g/dL]) at screening

• Patients must have newly diagnosed, stage II-IV low-grade serous ovarian cancer (submission of pathology report[s] required). Ovarian cancer = ovarian, fallopian tube and primary peritoneal cancers
• NOTE: Patients with a prior history of serous borderline tumors but a new diagnosis of stage II-IV low-grade serous ovarian cancer are eligible
• p53 immunohistochemistry (IHC) is required and must show nonaberrant pattern (nonaberrant p53 expression is consistent with normal/wildtype TP53)
• A copy of the pathology report that includes the diagnosis of low grade serous ovarian cancer and nonaberrant p53 IHC result must be submitted in RAVE. NOTE: If aberrant p53 expression is found on p53 IHC, the patient is NOT eligible (aberrant p53 expression is consistent with mutant TP53 and supports diagnosis of high grade serous ovarian cancer)
• Appropriate stage for study entry based on the following diagnostic workup:
• History/physical examination within 14 days prior to registration;
• Radiographic tumor assessment within 28 days prior to registration. (23-MAY-2023)
• Age >= 18
• Patients must have undergone an attempt at maximal upfront cytoreductive surgery, with either optimal (=< 1 cm diameter residual disease/nodule) or suboptimal residual disease (> 1 cm diameter residual disease/nodule) status allowed
• Patients must have undergone a bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
• Patients must have an Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0, 1 or 2 within 14 days prior to registration
• Patients must be within =< 8 weeks of primary cytoreductive surgery at time of randomization
• Patients must be able to take per oral (P.O.) medications
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) greater than or equal to 1,500/mcl (within 14 days prior to registration)
• Platelets greater than or equal to 100,000 cells/mcl (within 14 days prior to registration)
• Creatinine less than or equal to 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) (within 14 days prior to registration)
• Bilirubin less than or equal to 1.5 x ULN (within 14 days prior to registration)
• Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and aspartate aminotransferase (AST) less than or equal to 3 x ULN (within 14 days prior to registration)
• The patient or a legally authorized representative must provide study-specific informed consent prior to study entry and, for patients treated in the United States (U.S.), authorization permitting release of personal health information
• Patients with a prior or concurrent malignancy whose natural history or treatment does not have the potential to interfere with the safety or efficacy assessment of the investigational regimen are eligible for this trial
• Patients may not have received neoadjuvant or adjuvant chemotherapy or radiotherapy for the treatment of this disease
• Patients may not have received previous hormonal therapy for the treatment of this disease
• Patients with known hypersensitivity to letrozole or hypersensitivity/intolerance to carboplatin/paclitaxel therapy
• Patients with severe cardiac disease:
• Myocardial infarction or unstable angina within 6 months prior to registration
• New York Heart Association (NYHA) class II or greater congestive heart failure
• Patients with known central nervous system metastases
• Patients with active (except for uncomplicated urinary tract infection) or uncontrolled systemic infection
• Patients with >= grade 2 baseline neuropathy
• Known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patients on effective anti-retroviral therapy with undetectable viral load within 6 months are eligible for this trial

• B-ALL and MPAL patients must be enrolled on APEC14B1 and consented to eligibility studies (Part A) prior to treatment and enrollment on AALL1732. Note that central confirmation of MPAL diagnosis must occur within 22 days of enrollment for suspected MPAL patients. If not performed within this time frame, patients will be taken off protocol.
• APEC14B1 is not a requirement for B-LLy patients but for institutional compliance every patient should be offered participation in APEC14B1. B-LLy patients may directly enroll on AALL1732.
• Patients must be > 365 days and < 25 years of age
• White blood cell count (WBC) criteria for patients with B-ALL (within 7 days prior to the start of protocol-directed systemic therapy):
• Age 1-9.99 years: WBC >= 50,000/uL
• Age 10-24.99 years: Any WBC
• Age 1-9.99 years: WBC < 50,000/uL with:
• Testicular leukemia
• CNS leukemia (CNS3)
• Steroid pretreatment.
• White blood cell count (WBC) criteria for patients with MPAL (within 7 days prior to the start of protocol-directed systemic therapy):
• Age 1-24.99 years: any WBC NOTE: Patients enrolled as suspected MPAL but found on central confirmatory testing to have B-ALL must meet the B-ALL criteria above (age, WBC, extramedullary disease, steroid pretreatment) to switch to the B-ALL stratum before the end of induction.
• Patient has newly diagnosed B-ALL or MPAL (by World Health Organization [WHO] 2016 criteria) with >= 25% blasts on a bone marrow (BM) aspirate;
• OR If a BM aspirate is not obtained or is not diagnostic of acute leukemia, the diagnosis can be established by a pathologic diagnosis of acute leukemia on a BM biopsy;
• OR A complete blood count (CBC) documenting the presence of at least 1,000/uL circulating leukemic cells if a bone marrow aspirate or biopsy cannot be performed.
• Patient has newly diagnosed B-LLy Murphy stages III or IV.
• Patient has newly diagnosed B-LLy Murphy stages I or II with steroid pretreatment.
• Note: For B-LLy patients with tissue available for flow cytometry, the criterion for diagnosis should be analogous to B-ALL. For tissue processed by other means (i.e., paraffin blocks), the methodology and criteria for immunophenotypic analysis to establish the diagnosis of B-LLy defined by the submitting institution will be accepted.
• Central nervous system (CNS) status must be determined prior to enrollment based on a sample obtained prior to administration of any systemic or intrathecal chemotherapy, except for steroid pretreatment and cytoreduction. It is recommended that intrathecal cytarabine be administered at the time of the diagnostic lumbar puncture. This is usually done at the time of the diagnostic bone marrow or venous line placement to avoid a second lumbar puncture. This is allowed prior to enrollment. Systemic chemotherapy must begin within 72 hours of this intrathecal therapy.
• All patients and/or their parents or legal guardians must sign a written informed consent.
• All institutional, Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and NCI requirements for human studies must be met.
• Patients with Down syndrome are not eligible (patients with Down syndrome and B-ALL are eligible for AALL1731, regardless of NCI risk group).
• With the exception of steroid pretreatment and steroid cytoreduction or the administration of intrathecal cytarabine, patients must not have received any prior cytotoxic chemotherapy for the current diagnosis of B-ALL, MPAL, or B-LLy or for any cancer diagnosed prior to initiation of protocol therapy on AALL1732.
• Patients who have received > 72 hours of hydroxyurea within one week prior to start of systemic protocol therapy.
• Patients with B-ALL or MPAL who do not have sufficient diagnostic bone marrow submitted for APEC14B1 testing and who do not have a peripheral blood sample submitted containing > 1,000/uL circulating leukemia cells.
• Patients with acute undifferentiated leukemia (AUL) are not eligible.
• For Murphy stage III/IV B-LLy patients, or stage I/II patients with steroid pretreatment, the following additional exclusion criteria apply:
• T-lymphoblastic lymphoma.
• Morphologically unclassifiable lymphoma.
• Absence of both B-cell and T-cell phenotype markers in a case submitted as lymphoblastic lymphoma.
• Patients with known Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease.
• Patients with known MYC translocation associated with mature (Burkitt) B-cell ALL, regardless of blast immunophenotype.
• Patients requiring radiation at diagnosis.
• Female patients who are pregnant, since fetal toxicities and teratogenic effects have been noted for several of the study drugs. A pregnancy test is required for female patients of childbearing potential.
• Lactating women who plan to breastfeed their infants while on study and for 2 months after the last dose of inotuzumab ozogamicin.
• Sexually active patients of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of study participation. For those patients randomized to inotuzumab ozogamicin, there is a minimum of 8 months after the last dose of inotuzumab ozogamicin for females and 5 months after the last dose of inotuzumab ozogamicin for males.

• All B-ALL patients must be enrolled on APEC14B1 and consented to Eligibility Screening (Part A) prior to treatment and enrollment on AALL1731. APEC 14B1 is not a requirement for B-LLy patients. B-LLy patients may directly enroll on AALL1731.
• Age at diagnosis:
• Patients must be >= 365 days and < 10 years of age (B-ALL patients without DS).
• Patients must be >= 365 days and =< 31 years of age (B-ALL patients with DS).
• Patients must be >= 365 days and =< 31 years of age (B-LLy patients with or without DS).
• B-ALL patients without DS must have an initial white blood cell count < 50,000/uL (performed within 7 days prior to enrollment).
• B-ALL patients with DS are eligible regardless of the presenting white blood cell count (WBC) (performed within 7 days prior to enrollment).
• Patient has newly diagnosed B-cell ALL, with or without Down syndrome: > 25% blasts on a bone marrow (BM) aspirate;
• OR if a BM aspirate is not obtained or is not diagnostic of B-ALL, the diagnosis can be established by a pathologic diagnosis of B-ALL on a BM biopsy;
• OR a complete blood count (CBC) documenting the presence of at least 1,000/uL circulating leukemic cells;
• OR patient has newly diagnosed B-cell LLy Murphy stages I or II, with or without Down syndrome.
• Note: For B-LLy patients with tissue available for flow cytometry, the criterion for diagnosis should be analogous to B-ALL. For tissue processed by other means (i.e., paraffin blocks), the methodology and criteria for immunophenotypic analysis to establish the diagnosis of B-LLy defined by the submitting institution will be accepted (diagnostic biopsy for B-LLy must be performed within 14 days prior to enrollment).
• All patients and/or their parents or legal guardians must sign a written informed consent.
• All institutional, Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and National Cancer Institute (NCI) requirements for human studies must be met.
• Patient must not have secondary ALL that developed after treatment of a prior malignancy with cytotoxic chemotherapy. Note: patients with Down syndrome with a prior history of transient myeloproliferative disease (TMD) are not considered to have had a prior malignancy. They would therefore be eligible whether or not the TMD was treated with cytarabine.
• With the exception of steroid pretreatment or the administration of intrathecal cytarabine, patients must not have received any prior cytotoxic chemotherapy for either the current diagnosis of B ALL or B LLy or for any cancer diagnosed prior to initiation of protocol therapy on AALL1731.
• For patients receiving steroid pretreatment, the following additional exclusion criteria apply:
• Non-DS B-ALL patients must not have received steroids for more than 24 hours in the 2 weeks prior to diagnosis without a CBC obtained within 3 days prior to initiation of the steroids.
• DS and non-DS B-LLy patients must not have received > 48 hours of oral or IV steroids within 4 weeks of diagnosis.
• Patients who have received > 72 hours of hydroxyurea within 1 week (7 days) prior to the start of systemic protocol therapy.
• B-ALL patients who do not have sufficient diagnostic bone marrow submitted for APEC14B1 diagnostic testing and who do not have a peripheral blood sample submitted containing > 1,000/uL circulating leukemia cells.
• Patient must not have acute undifferentiated leukemia (AUL).
• Non-DS B-ALL patients with central nervous system [CNS]3 leukemia (CNS status must be known prior to enrollment).
• Note: DS patients with CNS3 disease are eligible but will be assigned to the DS-High B-ALL arm. CNS status must be determined based on a sample obtained prior to administration of any systemic or intrathecal chemotherapy, except for steroid pretreatment.
• Non-DS B-ALL patients with testicular leukemia. (Note: DS patients with testicular disease are eligible but will be assigned to the DS-High B-ALL arm).
• For LLy patients, the following additional exclusion criteria apply:
• T-Lymphoblastic Lymphoma.
• Morphologically unclassifiable lymphoma.
• Absence of both B-cell and T-cell phenotype markers in a case submitted as lymphoblastic lymphoma.
• CNS positive disease or testicular involvement.
• M2 (5%
•25% blasts) or M3 (> 25% blasts) marrow.
• Patients with known Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease.
• Patients with known MYC translocation associated with mature (Burkitt) B-cell ALL, regardless of blast immunophenotype.
• Patients requiring radiation at diagnosis.
• Female patients who are pregnant since fetal toxicities and teratogenic effects have been noted for several of the study drugs. A pregnancy test is required for female patients of childbearing potential.
• Lactating females who plan to breastfeed their infants.
• Sexually active patients of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of their study participation.

• Patient must have been diagnosed with CML-CP at < 18 years of age.
• Patient must have histologic verification of CML-CP at original diagnosis
• Patient must be in molecular remission (MR) with a BCR-ABL1 level of =< 0.01% BCR-ABL1 as measured using the International Scale (IS) by RQ-PCR for >= 2 consecutive years at the time of enrollment
• Please note: The lab evaluating disease status and molecular response for this study must be College of American Pathology (CAP) and/or Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified (United States [US] only), sites in other countries must be certified by their accredited authorities. All labs must use the International Scale guidelines with a sensitivity of detection assay =< 0.01% BCR-ABL1 and be able to report results in =< 2 weeks
• Patient must have received any TKI for a minimum of 3 consecutive years at time of enrollment
• Patient agrees to discontinue TKI therapy
• REGULATORY REQUIREMENTS
• All patients and/or their parents or legal guardians must sign a written informed consent
• All institutional, Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and National Cancer Institute (NCI) requirements for human studies must be met
• ELIGIBILITY FOR PATIENT-REPORTED OUTCOMES (PROs):
• Age >= 8 years at the time of enrollment
• Ability to understand English or Spanish
• Cognitive ability to complete instruments according to the primary team
• ELIGIBILITY FOR AAML18P1 NEUROCOGNITIVE STUDY:
• Patient must be 5 years or older at the time of enrollment
• English-, French- or Spanish-speaking
• No known history of neurodevelopmental disorder prior to diagnosis of CML (e.g., Down syndrome, Fragile X, William syndrome, mental retardation)
• No significant visual or motor impairment that would prevent computer use or recognition of visual test stimuli
• Known T3151 mutation
• Additional clonal chromosomal abnormalities in Philadelphia chromosome (Ph) positive (+) cells at any time prior to enrollment that include "major route" abnormalities (second Ph, trisomy 8, isochromosome 17q, trisomy 19), complex karyotype or abnormalities of 3q26.2
• History of accelerated phase or blast crisis CML
• Female patients who are pregnant
• Lactating females are not eligible unless they have agreed not to breastfeed their infants
• Female patients of childbearing potential are not eligible unless a negative pregnancy test result has been obtained

• Histologically confirmed diagnosis of a solid tumor malignancy with KRAS G12C mutation
• Unresectable or metastatic disease
• Standard treatment is not available or patient declines; first-line treatment for NSCLC for certain cohorts
• Adequate organ function
• History of intestinal disease or major gastric surgery or inability to swallow oral medications
• Other active cancer

1. Infants with SCID, either typical or leaky or Omenn syndrome. 1. Typical SCID is defined as either of the following
• Absence or very low number of T cells (CD3+ T cells <300/microliter AND no or very low T cell function (<10% of lower limit of normal) as measured by response to phytohemagglutinin OR
• Presence of maternally derived T cells 2. Leaky SCID is defined as the following • Absence of maternally derived T cells • AND either one or both of the following (i, ii): i) <50% of lower limit of normal T cell function as measured by response to PHA OR <30% of lower limit of normal T cell function as measured by response to CD3 ii) Absent or <10% of lower limit of normal proliferative responses to candida and tetanus toxoid antigens (must document post vaccination or exposure for this criterion to apply) • AND at least two of the following (i through iii): i) CD3 T cells < 1500/microliter ii) >80% of CD3+ or CD4+ T cells are CD45RO+ AND/OR >80% of CD3+ or CD4+ T cells are CD62L negative AND/OR >50% of CD3+ or CD4+ T cells express HLA-DR (at < 4 years of age) AND/OR are oligoclonal T iii) Low TRECs and/or the percentage of CD4+/45RA+/CD31+ or CD4+/45RA+/CD62L+ cells is below the lower level of normal. 3. Omenn syndrome • Generalized skin rash
• Maternal lymphocytes tested for and not detected.
• >80% of CD3+ or CD4+ T cells are CD45RO+ AND/OR >80% of CD3+ or CD4+ T cells are CD62L negative AND/OR >50% of CD3+ or CD4+ T cells express HLA-DR (<2 years of age)
• Absent or low (up to 30% lower limit of normal (LLN)) T cell proliferation to antigens (Candida, tetanus) to which the patient has been exposed IF: Proliferation to antigen was not performed, but at least 4 of the following 8 supportive criteria, at least one of which must be among those marked with an asterisk (*) below are present, the patient is eligible as Omenn Syndrome. 1. Hepatomegaly 2. Splenomegaly 3. Lymphadenopathy 4. Elevated IgE 5. Elevated absolute eosinophil count 6. *Oligoclonal T cells measured by CDR3 length or flow cytometry (upload report) 7. *Proliferation to PHA is reduced to < 50% of lower limit of normal (LLN) or SI < 30 8. *Low TRECs and/or percentage of CD4+/RA+ CD31+ or CD4+/RA+ CD62L+ cells below the lower level of normal 2. Documented mutation in one of the following SCID-related genes a. Cytokine receptor defects (IL2RG, JAK3) b. T cell receptor rearrangement defects (RAG1, RAG2) 3. No available genotypically matched related donor (sibling) 4. Availability of a suitable donor and graft source 1. Haploidentical related mobilized peripheral blood cells 2. 9/10 or 10/10 allele matched (HLA-A, -B, -C, -DRB1, -DQB1) volunteer unrelated donor mobilized peripheral blood cells 5. Age 0 to 2 years at enrollment Note: to ensure appropriate hepatic metabolism, age at time of busulfan start: For IL2RG/JAK3: 8 weeks For RAG1/RAG2: 12 weeks 6. Adequate organ function defined as: 1. Cardiac: Left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) at rest ≥ 40% or, shortening fraction (SF) ≥ 26% by echocardiogram. 2. Hepatic: Total bilirubin < 3.0 x the upper limit of normal (ULN) for age (patients who have been diagnosed with Gilbert's Disease are allowed to exceed this limit) and AST and ALT < 5.0 x ULN for age. 3. Renal: GFR estimated by the updated Schwartz formula ≥ 90 mL/min/1.73 m2. If the estimated GFR is < 90 mL/min/1.73 m2, then renal function must be measured by 24-hour creatinine clearance or nuclear GFR, and must be > 50 mL/min/1.73 m2. 4. Pulmonary No need for supplemental oxygen and O2 saturation > 92% on room air at sea level (with lower levels allowed at higher elevations per established center standard of care). 1. Presence of any serious life-threatening or opportunistic infection at time of enrollment and prior to the initiation of the preparative regimen. Serious infections as defined below that occur after enrollment must be reported immediately to the Study Coordinating Center, and enrollment will be put on hold until the infection resolves. Ideally enrolled subjects will not have had any infection. If patients have experienced infections, these must have resolved by the following definitions: a. Bacterial i. Positive culture from a sterile site (e.g. blood, CSF, etc.): Repeat culture(s) from same site must be negative and patient has completed appropriate course of antibacterial therapy (typically at least 10 days). ii. Tissue-based clinical infection (e.g. cellulitis): Complete resolution of clinical signs (e.g. erythema, tenderness, etc.) and patient has completed appropriate course of antibacterial therapy (typically at least 10 days). iii. Pneumonia, organism not identified by bronchoalveolar lavage: Complete resolution of clinical signs (e.g. tachypnea, oxygen requirement, etc.) and patient has completed appropriate course of antibacterial therapy (typically at least 10 days). If possible, radiographic resolution should also be demonstrated. b. Fungal i. Positive culture from a sterile site (e.g. blood, CSF, etc.): Repeat culture(s) from same site is negative and patient has completed appropriate course of antifungal therapy (typically at least 14 days). The patient may be continued on antifungal prophylaxis following completion of the treatment course. c. Pneumocystis i. Complete resolution of clinical signs (e.g. tachypnea, oxygen requirement, etc.) and patient has completed appropriate course of therapy (typically at least 21 days). If possible, radiographic resolution should also be demonstrated. The patient may be continued on prophylaxis following completion of the treatment course. d. Viral i. Viral PCRs from previously documented sites (blood, nasopharynx, CSF) must be re-tested and are negative. ii. If re-sampling a site is not clinically feasible (i.e. BAL fluid): Complete resolution of clinical signs (e.g. tachypnea, oxygen requirement, etc.). If possible, radiographic resolution should also be demonstrated. 2. Patients with HIV or HTLV I/II infection will be excluded.

Key
• Female or male individuals, ≥ 18 years of age (19 Years old for South Korea).
• Individuals with histologically confirmed urothelial cancer (UC).
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) Performance status score of 0 or 1.
• Cohort 1: Have had progression or recurrence of urothelial cancer following receipt of platinum-containing regimen (cisplatin or carboplatin):
• Received a first-line platinum-containing regimen in the metastatic setting or for inoperable locally advanced disease;
• Or received neo/adjuvant platinum-containing therapy for localized muscle-invasive urothelial cancer, with recurrence/progression ≤12 months following completion of therapy.
• Cohort 1: In addition to above criterion, have had progression or recurrence of urothelial cancer following receipt of an Anti-programmed Cell Death Protein 1 (anti-PD-1)/ Anti-programmed Death Ligand 1 (PD-L1) therapy.
• Cohort 2: Were ineligible for platinum-based therapy for first line metastatic disease and have had progression or recurrence of urothelial cancer after a first-line therapy for metastatic disease with anti-PD-1/PD-L1 therapy. Individual may not have received any platinum for treatment of recurrent, metastatic or advanced disease.
• Cohort 3: Progression or recurrence of UC following a platinum containing regimen in the metastatic setting, or progression or recurrence of UC within 12 months of completion of platinum-based therapy as neoadjuvant or adjuvant therapy.
• Cohort 4: Individual has not received any platinum-based chemotherapy in the metastatic or unresectable locally advanced setting. Creatinine clearance of at least 50 mL/min calculated by Cockcroft-Gault formula or another validated tool. For individuals receiving cisplatin at 70 mg/m^2 on Day 1 of every 21-day cycle, a creatinine clearance of least 60 mL/min calculated by Cockcroft -Gault formula or another validated tool is required. Individuals with creatinine clearance between 50 to 59 mL/min are to receive a split dose of cisplatin (35 mg/m^2 Day 1 and Day 8 of every 21-day cycle).
• Cohorts 4, 5, 6: Archival tumor tissue comprising muscle-invasive or metastatic urothelial carcinoma, or a biopsy of metastatic urothelial carcinoma.
• Cohort 5: Individuals received at least 4 cycles and no more than 6 cycles of GEM + cisplatin. No other chemotherapy regimens are allowed in this cohort, with the exception of prior adjuvant or neoadjuvant systemic therapy with curative intent after > 12 months from completion of therapy.
• No evidence of progressive disease following completion of first-line chemotherapy (ie, CR, PR, or SD per RECIST v1.1 guidelines as per investigator).
• Treatment-free interval of 4 to 10 weeks since the last dose of chemotherapy.
• Cohort 6: Cis-ineligible and no prior therapy for metastatic disease or for unresectable locally advanced disease. Checkpoint inhibitor therapy naïve or >12 months from completion of adjuvant therapy are permitted.
• Cohorts 4 and 6: Have measurable disease by CT or MRI as per RECIST 1.1 criteria. Tumor lesions situated in a previously irradiated area are considered measurable if progression has been demonstrated in such lesions.
• Cohorts 1, 2, 3 and 5: Creatinine clearance ≥ 30 mL/min as calculated by the Cockcroft-Gault formula unless otherwise specified
• Adequate renal and hepatic function.
• Adequate hematologic parameters without transfusional support.
• Individuals must have a 3-month life expectancy. Key
• Females who are pregnant or lactating.
• Has had a prior anti-cancer monoclonal antibody (mAb) within 4 weeks prior to study Day 1 or who has not recovered (i.e., ≤ Grade 1 or at baseline) from adverse events due to agents administered more than 4 weeks earlier.
• Has had prior chemotherapy, targeted small molecule therapy, or radiation therapy within 2 weeks prior to study Day 1 or who has not recovered (ie, ≤Grade 1 from AEs due to a previously administered agent).
• For Cohort 5: Alopecia, sensory neuropathy Grade ≤2 is acceptable, or other Grade < 2 adverse events not constituting a safety risk based on the investigator's judgment are acceptable.
• Requires concomitant medication interfering with UGT1A1 with no alternate option available.
• Has an active second malignancy.
• Has known active central nervous system (CNS) metastases and/or carcinomatous meningitis.
• Has known active Hepatitis B or Hepatitis C.
• Has other concurrent medical or psychiatric conditions.
• Cohort 3: Has received anti-PD-1/PD-L1 therapy previously.
• Cohorts 3 to 5: Has an active autoimmune disease that required systemic treatment in past 2 years (ie, with use of disease-modifying agents, corticosteroids, or immunosuppressive drugs). Replacement therapy (eg, thyroxine, insulin, or physiologic corticosteroid replacement therapy for adrenal or pituitary insufficiency) is not considered a form of systemic treatment.
• Cohorts 3 to 6: Has received a live vaccine within 30 days prior to the first dose of study drug(s), has history or evidence of interstitial lung disease (ILD) or non-infectious pneumonitis.
• Cohort 4: Refractory to platinum (i.e., relapsed ≤ 12 months after completion of chemotherapy) in the neoadjuvant/adjuvant setting.
• Cohorts 4, 5, and 6: For individuals who received prior CPI, a treatment-free interval >12 months between the last treatment administration and the date of recurrence is required. Note: Other protocol defined Inclusion/Exclusion criteria may apply.

• Patients must be women with newly diagnosed histologically proven invasive carcinoma of the breast with no evidence of metastases, staged as per site standard of care.
• Patients must have been treated by BCS or mastectomy with clear margins of excision. Post-mastectomy positive margins for invasive disease and/or DCIS is not allowed. Multifocal disease (i.e. the presence of two or more foci or breast cancer within the same breast quadrant) and multicentric disease (i.e. the presence of two or more foci of breast cancer in different quadrants of the same breast) are allowed.
• Patients with T3N0 disease are eligible.
• Patients with disease limited to nodal micrometastases are eligible
• Patients with nodal macrometastases (>2mm) treated by axillary dissection must have 1-3 positive axillary nodes (macrometastases, > 2 mm).
• Patients treated by mastectomy and SLNB alone must have only 1-2 positive axillary nodes (macrometastases, > 2 mm).
• Patients must be ER ≥ 1% and HER2 negative on local testing
• Patients must have an Oncotype DX recurrence score ≤25 obtained from testing of breast tumour tissue from a core biopsy or from the surgical specimen.
• Patient must consent to provision of, and investigator(s) must agree to submit to the CCTG Central Tumour Bank, a representative formalin fixed paraffin block of tumour tissue in order that the specific correlative marker assays described in the protocol may be conducted
• Patient must consent to provision of samples of blood in order that the specific correlative marker assays described in the protocol may be conducted.
• Patients must have had endocrine therapy initiated or planned for ≥ 5 years. Premenopausal women will receive ovarian ablation plus aromatase inhibitor therapy or tamoxifen if adjuvant chemotherapy was not administered. For all patients, endocrine therapy can be given concurrently or following RT.
• Patients may or may not have had adjuvant chemotherapy.
• RT must commence within 16 weeks of definitive surgery if the patient is not treated with chemotherapy. If adjuvant chemotherapy is given, RT must begin within 12 weeks after the last dose. (Note: adjuvant chemotherapy may be ongoing at the time of randomization). Definitive surgery is defined as the last breast cancer-related surgery.
• Patient's ECOG performance status must be 0, 1 or 2.
• Patient's age must be ≥ 35 years.
• For the first 736 eligible English or French-speaking subjects who have agreed to optional questionnaire completion: Patient is able (i.e. sufficiently fluent) and willing to complete the quality of life, health utilities and lost productivity questionnaires in either English or French (note: enrollment completed 2022Aug02)
• Patient consent must be appropriately obtained in accordance with applicable local and regulatory requirements
• Patients must be accessible for treatment and follow-up. Investigators must assure themselves the patients randomized on this trial will be available for complete documentation of the treatment, adverse events, and follow-up.
• In accordance with CCTG policy, protocol treatment is to begin within 6 weeks of patient randomization.
• Women of childbearing potential must have agreed to use an effective contraceptive method. A woman is considered to be of "childbearing potential" if she has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months.
• Patients with nodal disease limited to isolated tumour cells (pN0i+ < 0.2 mm).
• Patients with pT3N1 and pT4 disease (Note: patients with T3N0 are eligible).
• Any prior history, not including the index cancer, of ipsilateral invasive breast cancer or ipsilateral DCIS treated with radiation therapy. (Patients with synchronous or previous ipsilateral LCIS are eligible.)
• Synchronous or previous contralateral invasive breast cancer. (Patients with contralateral DCIS are eligible unless previously treated with radiation.)
• History of non-breast malignancies except adequately treated non-melanoma skin cancers, in situ cancers treated by local excision or other cancers curatively treated with no evidence of disease for ≥ 5 years.
• Patients who are pregnant.
• Patients that have had prior ipsilateral chestwall/thoracic radiation.
• Patients treated with chemo or endocrine therapy administered in the neoadjuvant setting for breast cancer. Endocrine therapy exposure 12 weeks or less prior to surgery is permitted.
• Patients with serious non-malignant disease (e.g. cardiovascular, scleroderma etc.) which would preclude RT.
• Patients with any serious active or co-morbid medical conditions, laboratory abnormality, psychiatric illness, active or uncontrolled infections, or serious illnesses or medical conditions that would prevent the patient from participating or to be managed according to the protocol (according to investigator's decision).

• Patients must have follicular lymphoma (grade I, II or IIIa) confirmed at initial diagnosis and at relapse with identifiable fludeoxyglucose F-18 (FDG) avid disease on PET/CT; patients that have involvement with large cell lymphoma are not eligible
• Patients must have a whole body or limited whole body PET/CT scan performed within 42 days prior to registration
• Patients must have bone marrow biopsy performed within 42 days prior to registration
• Patients must have an indication for therapy as determined by the treating investigator
• All disease must be assessed and documented on the S1608 FDG-PET/CT assessment form
• The intent is to enroll patients with follicular lymphoma (FL) relapsed within 2 years of completing their first course of chemotherapy (CHOP or bendamustine based therapy) + anti-CD20 therapy. Patient is still eligible if he/she received radiation therapy or anti-CD20 therapy prior to chemoimmunotherapy or if maintenance anti-CD20 therapy was administered after chemoimmunotherapy
• Patients must have either failed to achieve a complete remission, or must have relapsed within 2 years after completing CHOP or bendamustine-containing chemoimmunotherapy (including an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody), as measured from the last dose of CHOP or bendamustine; relapsed patients must not have received any intervening chemotherapy
• Patients must have received only 1 course of chemotherapy, containing at least 3 cycles of CHOP or bendamustine; (note that no minimum dose of bendamustine is required)
• Patients who received any anti-CD20 antibody therapy prior to CHOP or bendamustine are eligible
• Patients who additionally received any maintenance anti-CD-20 antibody therapy or consolidative radioimmunotherapy within 2 years of the last dose of the CHOP or bendamustine therapy are eligible
• Involved field or involved site radiation is not considered a line of therapy; examples of eligible prior treatment regimens (note this list is not all inclusive):
• 1st line rituximab treatment followed years later by bendamustine rituximab
• Bendamustine rituximab x 4 cycles
• 1st line rituximab treatment, 2nd line ibritumomab tiuxetan, followed by bendamustine bortezomib rituximab x 6 cycles followed by rituximab maintenance
• Bendamustine obinutuzumab x 3 cycles
• CHOP rituximab x 6 cycles followed by rituximab maintenance
• For all forms of systemic therapy, patients must have completed therapy at least 21 days prior to registration; patients must have completed any radioimmunotherapy at least 84 days prior to registration; patients prior treatment related toxicities (except alopecia) must have resolved to grade 1 or less prior to registration
• Patients must have tissue specimens collected prior to registration; patients must be offered participation in biobanking of residual specimens; with patient consent, residuals from the mandatory submission(s) will be banked for future research
• Patients must be >= 18 years of age
• All patients must have a Zubrod performance status of 0, 1 or 2
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,500/mcL within 28 days prior to registration
• Platelets >= 75,000/mcL within 28 days prior to registration
• Patients must have adequate renal function as documented by a calculated creatinine clearance >= 60 mL/min, within 28 days prior to registration
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (IULN) (=< 5 x IULN if secondary to lymphoma, Gilbert's syndrome, or medication related [e.g., indinavir, tenofovir, atazanavir]) within 28 days prior to registration
• Direct bilirubin =< 1.5 x IULN (=< 5 x IULN if secondary to lymphoma) within 28 days prior to registration
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 2.5 x IULN (=< 5 x IULN secondary to lymphoma) within 28 days prior to registration
• Patients must have an echocardiogram (ECHO) or multigated acquisition (MUGA) scan within 42 days prior to registration with a cardiac ejection fraction >= 45%
• Patients with hepatitis B virus infection must have undetectable hepatitis B virus (HBV) on suppressive therapy and no evidence of HBV-related hepatic damage; patients with hepatitis C virus infection are eligible if complete eradication therapy has been successfully completed, and there is no detectable hepatitis C virus (HVC) or related hepatic damage; patients with known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection are eligible if they meet all of the following criteria in addition to the other protocol eligibility criteria:
• Patient must have no history of acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)-related complications, other than a history of low CD4+ T-cell count (< 200/mm^3) prior to initiation of combination antiretroviral therapy; on study CD4+ T-cell count may not be informative due to leukemia and should not be used as an exclusion criterion if low
• Patient must be healthy on the basis of HIV disease with high likelihood of near normal life span were it not for the leukemia
• Patient must have serum HIV viral load of < 200 copies/mm^3
• Patient must be on combination antiretroviral therapy with minimal pharmacokinetic interactions with study therapy and minimal overlapping clinical toxicity with protocol therapy; (recommend a regimen of the integrase inhibitor dolutegravir combined with either disoproxil fumarate/emtricitabine or dolutegravir combined with tenofovir alafenamide/emtricitabine)
• Protease inhibitors and once daily formulations containing cobicistat are NOT allowed due to potential pharmacokinetic interactions with leukemia therapy
• Stavudine and zidovudine (AZT) are NOT allowed because of overlapping toxicity with protocol therapy
• Patients must be able and willing to receive prophylaxis with daily aspirin, low molecular weight heparin, factor X inhibitors or warfarin if randomized to lenalidomide; patients unable or unwilling to take any listed prophylaxis are NOT eligible
• No second prior malignancy is allowed except for adequately treated basal (or squamous cell) skin cancer, in situ cervical cancer or other cancer for which the patient has been disease free for three years
• Patients must have a complete history and physical examination within 28 days prior to registration
• Females of childbearing potential (FCBP) must have a negative serum or urine pregnancy test with a sensitivity of at least 25 mIU/mL within 10-14 days and again within 24 hours prior to starting cycle 1 of lenalidomide; further, they must either commit to complete abstinence (true abstinence is acceptable when this is in line with the preferred and usual lifestyle of the subject; periodic abstinence [e.g., calendar, ovulation, symptothermal or post ovulation methods] and withdrawal are not acceptable methods of contraception) from heterosexual intercourse or begin TWO acceptable methods of birth control: one highly effective method and one additional effective method AT THE SAME TIME, at least 28 days before starting lenalidomide; while taking lenalidomide, during dose interruptions, and for at least 28 days after the last dose of lenalidomide; FCBP must also agree to ongoing pregnancy testing; men must agree to use a latex condom during sexual contact with a FCBP, even if they have had a successful vasectomy; a FCBP is a female who: 1) has achieved menarche at some point; 2) has not undergone a hysterectomy or bilateral oophorectomy; or 3) has not been naturally postmenopausal (amenorrhea following cancer therapy does not rule out childbearing potential) for at least 24 consecutive months (i.e., has had menses at any time in the preceding 24 consecutive months); all patients must be counseled by a trained counselor every 28 days about pregnancy precautions and risks of fetal exposure; NOTE: patients not randomized to receive lenalidomide will not be required to undergo serial pregnancy testing or lenalidomide counseling after registration
• Patients must have lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) and beta-2-microglobulin collected within 28 days prior to registration
• Patients must be informed of the investigational nature of this study and must sign and give written informed consent in accordance with institutional and federal guidelines
• As a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the system
• Patients must not have clinical evidence of central nervous system involvement by lymphoma since the proposed treatment strategies are not designed to address central nervous system (CNS) involvement adequately; if performed, any laboratory or radiographic tests performed to assess CNS involvement must be negative
• Patients must not have any prior treatment with any PI3K inhibitor, or lenalidomide

• Patient must have enrolled onto APEC1621SC and must have been given a treatment assignment to Molecular Analysis for Therapy Choice (MATCH) to APEC1621F based on the presence of an actionable mutation
• Patients must be >= than 12 months and =< 21 years of age at the time of study enrollment.
• Patients must have a body surface area >= 0.5 m^2 at enrollment
• Patients must have radiographically measurable disease at the time of study enrollment. Patients with neuroblastoma who do not have measurable disease but have iobenguane (MIBG) positive (+) evaluable disease are eligible; measurable disease in patients with CNS involvement is defined as any lesion that is at minimum 10 mm in one dimension on a standard MRI or CT
• Note: The following do not qualify as measurable disease:
• Malignant fluid collections (e.g., ascites, pleural effusions)
• Bone marrow infiltration except that detected by MIBG scan for neuroblastoma
• Lesions only detected by nuclear medicine studies (e.g., bone, gallium or positron emission tomography [PET] scans) except as noted for neuroblastoma
• Elevated tumor markers in plasma or cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
• Previously radiated lesions that have not demonstrated clear progression post radiation
• Leptomeningeal lesions that do not meet the measurement requirements for Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) 1.1
• Karnofsky >= 50% for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky >= 50 for patients =< 16 years of age
• Note: Neurologic deficits in patients with CNS tumors must have been relatively stable for at least 7 days prior to study enrollment; patients who are unable to walk because of paralysis, but who are up in a wheelchair, will be considered ambulatory for the purpose of assessing the performance score
• Patients must have fully recovered from the acute toxic effects of all prior anti-cancer therapy and must meet the following minimum duration from prior anti-cancer directed therapy prior to enrollment; if after the required timeframe, the numerical eligibility criteria are met, e.g. blood count criteria, the patient is considered to have recovered adequately
• Cytotoxic chemotherapy or other anti-cancer agents known to be myelosuppressive: >= 21 days after the last dose of cytotoxic or myelosuppressive chemotherapy (42 days if prior nitrosourea)
• Anti-cancer agents not known to be myelosuppressive (e.g. not associated with reduced platelet or absolute neutrophil counts [ANC] counts): >= 7 days after the last dose of agent
• Antibodies: >= 21 days must have elapsed from infusion of last dose of antibody, and toxicity related to prior antibody therapy must be recovered to grade =< 1
• Corticosteroids: if used to modify immune adverse events related to prior therapy, >= 14 days must have elapsed since last dose of corticosteroid
• Hematopoietic growth factors: >= 14 days after the last dose of a long-acting growth factor (e.g. pegfilgrastim) or 7 days for short-acting growth factor; for growth factors that have known adverse events occurring beyond 7 days after administration, this period must be extended beyond the time during which adverse events are known to occur; the duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair and the study-assigned research coordinator
• Interleukins, interferons and cytokines (other than hematopoietic growth factors): >= 21 days after the completion of interleukins, interferon or cytokines (other than hematopoietic growth factors)
• Stem cell Infusions (with or without total body irradiation [TBI]):
• Allogeneic (non-autologous) bone marrow or stem cell transplant, or any stem cell infusion including donor lymphocyte infusion (DLI) or boost infusion: >= 84 days after infusion and no evidence of graft versus host disease (GVHD)
• Autologous stem cell infusion including boost infusion: >= 42 days
• Cellular therapy: >= 42 days after the completion of any type of cellular therapy (e.g. modified T cells, natural killer [NK] cells, dendritic cells, etc.)
• Radiation therapy (XRT)/external beam irradiation including protons: >= 14 days after local XRT; >= 150 days after TBI, craniospinal XRT or if radiation to >= 50% of the pelvis; >= 42 days if other substantial none marrow (BM) radiation
• Note: Radiation may not be delivered to "measurable disease" tumor site(s) being used to follow response to subprotocol treatment
• Radiopharmaceutical therapy (e.g., radiolabeled antibody, 131I-MIBG): >= 42 days after systemically administered radiopharmaceutical therapy
• Patients must not have received prior exposure to ensartinib; prior treatment with other ALK inhibitors is permitted given that at least 5 half-lives or 21 days have elapsed since therapy discontinuation, whichever is greater
• For patients with solid tumors without known bone marrow involvement:
• Peripheral absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1000/mm^3 (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Platelet count >= 100,000/mm^3 (transfusion independent, defined as not receiving platelet transfusions for at least 7 days prior to enrollment) (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Patients with known bone marrow metastatic disease will be eligible for study provided they meet the blood counts (may receive transfusions provided they are not known to be refractory to red cell or platelet transfusions); these patients will not be evaluable for hematologic toxicity
• Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 70 ml/min/1.73 m^2 (within 7 days prior to enrollment) or a serum creatinine based on age/gender as follows (within 7 days prior to enrollment):
• Age 1 to < 2 years: maximum serum creatinine 0.6 mg/dL for male and 0.6 mg/dL for female
• Age 2 to < 6 years: maximum serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL for male and 0.8 mg/dL for female
• Age 6 to < 10 years: maximum serum creatinine 1 mg/dL for male and 1 mg/dL for female
• Age 10 to < 13 years: maximum serum creatinine 1.2 mg/dL for male and 1.2 mg/dL for female
• Age 13 to < 16 years: maximum serum creatinine 1.5 mg/dL for male and 1.4 mg/dL for female
• Age >= 16 years: maximum serum creatinine 1.7 mg/dL for male and 1.4 mg/dL for female
• Bilirubin (sum of conjugated + unconjugated) =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase (SGPT) (alanine aminotransferase [ALT]) =< 135 U/L (within 7 days prior to enrollment) (for the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT is 45 U/L)
• Serum albumin >= 2 g/dL (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Patients must be able to swallow intact capsules
• All patients and/or their parents or legally authorized representatives must sign a written informed consent; assent, when appropriate, will be obtained according to institutional guidelines
• Pregnant or breast-feeding women will not be entered on this study because there is currently no available information regarding human fetal or teratogenic toxicities; pregnancy tests must be obtained in girls who are post-menarchal; males or females of reproductive potential may not participate unless they have agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of study treatment and for one week after the last dose of ensartinib
• Concomitant medications
• Corticosteroids: patients receiving corticosteroids who have not been on a stable or decreasing dose of corticosteroid for at least 7 days prior to enrollment are not eligible; if used to modify immune adverse events related to prior therapy, >= 14 days must have elapsed since last dose of corticosteroid
• Investigational drugs: patients who are currently receiving another investigational drug are not eligible
• Anti-cancer agents: patients who are currently receiving other anti-cancer agents are not eligible
• Anti-GVHD agents post-transplant: patients who are receiving cyclosporine, tacrolimus or other agents to prevent graft-versus-host disease post bone marrow transplant are not eligible for this trial
• CYP3A4 agents: patients who are currently receiving drugs that are strong inducers or strong inhibitors of CYP3A4 are not eligible; strong inducers or inhibitors of CYP3A4 should be avoided from 14 days prior to enrollment to the end of the study
• Note: CYP3A4 inducing anti-epileptic drugs and dexamethasone for CNS tumors or metastases, on a stable dose, are allowed
• Patients who have an uncontrolled infection are not eligible
• Patients who have received a prior solid organ transplantation are not eligible
• Patients who in the opinion of the investigator may not be able to comply with the safety monitoring requirements of the study are not eligible

• PRIOR TO STEP 1 REGISTRATION:
• The patient must have a newly diagnosed unifocal intracranial meningioma, gross totally resected, and histologically confirmed as WHO grade II based upon pathology findings at the enrolling institution; WHO grade will be assigned according to WHO 2016 criteria
• Gross total resection (GTR) will be interpreted as modified Simpson grade 1-3 without gross residual dural-based or extradural tumor; GTR must be confirmed both by modified Simpson grade and by post-operative magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) findings
• Step 1 registration must occur within 180 days of the initial surgery; within this 180 day interval, a second surgery is permitted in order to achieve GTR, but even with a second surgery, step 1 registration must occur within 180 days of the initial resection
• For step 1 registration the operating neurosurgeon must provide the modified Simpson grade
• GTR must be confirmed on post-operative imaging following the most recent surgery; submission of both pre-operative and post-operative MRIs is required for patients; if a second surgery is performed, submission of post-operative MRI is required and pre-operative MRI is required only if obtained; all sequences obtained in the pre- and post-operative MR imaging are to be submitted to National Radiology Group (NRG) Oncology for study registration; imaging subsequent to enrollment must include pre and post gadolinium contrast-enhanced three-dimensional spoiled gradient (SPGR), magnetization-prepared rapid gradient echo (MP-RAGE), or turbo field echo (TFE) MRI scan and an axial T2 fluid attenuated inversion recovery (FLAIR) sequence; to yield acceptable image quality, the gadolinium contrast-enhanced three-dimensional SPGR, MP-RAGE, or TFE axial MRI scan should use the smallest possible axial slice thickness not exceeding 1.5 mm; the post-operative MRI must be completed within sufficient time to permit step 1 registration within 180 days of the initial resection; these same conditions apply in the setting of a second surgical procedure, although if a second surgery is completed, step 1 registration must still occur with 180 days of initial surgery; computed tomography (CT) imaging is not required, but may be obtained if desired clinically, for instance to assess calcifications or hyperostosis
• The patient or a legally authorized representative must provide study-specific informed consent prior to study entry
• If the patient is a primary English speaker, the patient must participate in the NCF and patient reported outcomes part of the study; if the patient is a primary French or Spanish speaker, the patient must participate in the patient reported outcomes part of the study
• NOTE: Central pathology review must occur between steps 1 and 2 of registration; once appropriate pathology specimens are received, central pathology review will occur within 15 days, and must confirm WHO grade II meningioma before the patient can proceed to step 2 registration and randomization
• PRIOR TO STEP 2 REGISTRATION:
• Histologically confirmed diagnosis of WHO grade II meningioma confirmed by central pathology review prior to step 2 registration
• History/physical examination, including neurologic examination within 60 days prior to step 2 registration
• Post-operative Zubrod performance status 0-1 within 60 days prior to step 2 registration
• If the patient is a woman is of childbearing potential, a serum pregnancy test, obtained within 14 days prior to step 2 registration, must be negative, and, if randomized to receive radiation therapy, the woman must agree to use contraception
• Optic nerve sheath meningioma, spinal or other extracranial meningioma, multiple meningiomas, hemangiopericytoma
• Definitive evidence of metastatic meningioma
• Prior invasive malignancy (except non-melanomatous skin cancer) unless disease free for a minimum of 3 years (carcinoma in situ of the breast, oral cavity, cervix, melanoma in situ, or other non-invasive malignancies are permissible)
• Previous radiotherapy to the scalp, cranium, brain, or skull base and radiation-induced meningiomas
• Major medical illnesses or psychiatric impairments, which in the investigators opinion, will prevent administration or completion of the protocol therapy and/or preclude informed consent; these include, but are not restricted to:
• Unstable angina and/or congestive heart failure requiring hospitalization at the time of step 2 registration
• Transmural myocardial infarction within the last 6 months prior to step 2 registration
• Acute bacterial or fungal infection requiring intravenous antibiotics at the time of step 2 registration
• Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease exacerbation or other respiratory illness requiring hospitalization or precluding study therapy at the time of step 2 registration
• Type II neurofibromatosis (NF2)
• Ailments entailing substantial increases in sensitivity and side effect risk from radiation therapy (ataxia telangiectasia, Nijmegen breakage syndrome, and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) with CD4 count < 200 cells/microliter); HIV testing is not required for eligibility for this protocol, and known HIV positive patients are eligible, provided they are under treatment with highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) and have a CD4 count >= 200 cells/microliter within 30 days prior to step 2 registration
• Inability to undergo MRI with and without contrast (e.g. claustrophobia, non-MRI compatible implant or foreign body, etc) or receive gadolinium; note that patients with severe claustrophobia are permitted on this study if they are willing and able to undergo MRI with adequate sedation or anesthesia
• Pregnancy and/or nursing females

• ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR ENROLLMENT ONTO APEC1621SC: Patients must be >= 12 months and =< 21 years of age at the time of study enrollment
• ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR ENROLLMENT ONTO APEC1621SC: Patients with recurrent or refractory solid tumors, including non-Hodgkin lymphomas, histiocytoses (e.g. langerhans cell histiocytosis [LCH], juvenile xanthogranuloma [JXG], histiocytic sarcoma), and central nervous system (CNS) tumors are eligible; patients must have had histologic verification of malignancy at original diagnosis or relapse except in patients with intrinsic brain stem tumors, optic pathway gliomas, or patients with pineal tumors and elevations of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or serum tumor markers including alpha-fetoprotein or beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG); in cases where patient enrolls prior to histologic confirmation of recurrent disease, patient is ineligible and should be withdrawn from study if histology fails to confirm recurrence; please note: Patients with Hodgkin lymphoma and plexiform neurofibroma are not eligible
• ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR ENROLLMENT ONTO APEC1621SC: Tumor Testing Requirement: Tumor sample availability requirement for stage 1 of Pediatric MATCH (patients enrolled from start of study in July 2017 through 12/31/21); Patients must have an formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded (FFPE) tumor sample available for MATCH study testing from a biopsy or surgery that was performed at any point after initial tumor recurrence/progression, or be planned to have a procedure to obtain such a sample that is considered to be of potential benefit by the treating clinicians; a tumor sample from a clinically performed diagnostic (pre-treatment) biopsy will be acceptable for enrollment onto Pediatric MATCH only for children with high-grade gliomas of the brainstem (diffuse intrinsic pontine gliomas) or thalamus
• Please note: Samples that have been decalcified using standardly utilized acid-based decalcification methods are not generally suitable for MATCH study testing; the nucleic acids will have been degraded in the decalcification process
• ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR ENROLLMENT ONTO APEC1621SC: Tumor molecular profiling report availability requirement for Stage 2 of Pediatric MATCH (patients enrolled starting 2022): In stage 2 of the study, no tumor samples will be submitted for centralized clinical tumor profiling; instead, a tumor molecular profiling report from a College of American Pathologists (CAP)/ Clinical Laboratory Improvements Amendments (CLIA)-approved testing laboratory must be submitted for review by the Molecular Review Committee (MRC)
• This molecular profiling must have been performed on a tumor sample that was obtained at any point after initial tumor recurrence/progression and must be accompanied by a pathology report for the same tumor specimen; a molecular profiling report for a diagnostic (pre-treatment) tumor sample will be acceptable for enrollment onto Pediatric MATCH only for children with high-grade gliomas of the brainstem (diffuse intrinsic pontine gliomas) or thalamus. In the event that molecular profiling reports are available from multiple timepoints, the most recent report should be prioritized for study submission
• ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR ENROLLMENT ONTO APEC1621SC: Karnofsky >= 50% for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky >= 50 for patients =< 16 years of age); note: neurologic deficits in patients with central nervous system (CNS) tumors must have been stable for at least 7 days prior to study enrollment; patients who are unable to walk because of paralysis, but who are up in a wheelchair, will be considered ambulatory for the purpose of assessing the performance score
• ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR ENROLLMENT ONTO APEC1621SC: Patients must have radiographically measurable disease; measurable disease based on imaging obtained less than or equal to 56 days prior to enrollment; patients with neuroblastoma who do not have measurable disease but have metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) positive (+) evaluable disease are eligible; measurable disease in patients with CNS involvement is defined as any lesion that is at minimum 10 mm in one dimension on standard magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) or computed tomography (CT)
• Note: The following do not qualify as measurable disease:
• Malignant fluid collections (e.g., ascites, pleural effusions)
• Bone marrow infiltration except that detected by MIBG scan for neuroblastoma
• Lesions only detected by nuclear medicine studies (e.g., bone, gallium or positron emission tomography [PET] scans) except as noted for neuroblastoma
• Elevated tumor markers in plasma or CSF
• Previously radiated lesions that have not demonstrated clear progression post radiation
• Leptomeningeal lesions that do not meet the measurement requirements for Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) 1.1
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: NOTE: patient does not need to meet all subprotocol criteria at time of enrollment onto the APEC1621SC screening protocol, but will need to meet all criteria prior to enrollment on any assigned treatment subprotocol. Patients must be enrolled onto a subprotocol within 2 weeks (14 days) of treatment assignment
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Karnofsky >= 50% for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky >= 50 for patients =< 16 years of age); Note: neurologic deficits in patients with CNS tumors must have been stable for at least 7 days prior to study enrollment; patients who are unable to walk because of paralysis, but who are up in a wheelchair, will be considered ambulatory for the purpose of assessing the performance score
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: At the time of treatment with subprotocol specified therapy, the patients must have radiographically measurable disease; patients with neuroblastoma who do not have measurable disease but have MIBG+ evaluable are eligible; measurable disease in patients with CNS involvement is defined as any lesion that is at minimum 10 mm in one dimension on standard MRI or CT
• Note: The following do not qualify as measurable disease:
• Malignant fluid collections (e.g., ascites, pleural effusions)
• Bone marrow infiltration except that detected by MIBG scan for neuroblastoma
• Lesions only detected by nuclear medicine studies (e.g., bone, gallium or positron emission tomography [PET] scans) except as noted for neuroblastoma
• Elevated tumor markers in plasma or CSF
• Previously radiated lesions that have not demonstrated clear progression post radiation
• Leptomeningeal lesions that do not meet the measurement requirements for RECIST 1.1
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: At the time of enrollment onto a subprotocol, the following general criteria for initiation of therapy will be required:
• Patients must have fully recovered from the acute toxic effects of all prior anticancer therapy and must meet the following minimum duration from prior anticancer directed therapy prior to enrollment to the subprotocol; if after the required timeframe, the numerical eligibility criteria are met, e.g. blood count criteria, the patient is considered to have recovered adequately
• Cytotoxic chemotherapy or other anticancer agents known to be myelosuppressive: for agents not listed, the duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair and the study-assigned research coordinator prior to enrollment >= 21 days after the last dose of cytotoxic or myelosuppressive chemotherapy (42 days if prior nitrosourea)
• Anticancer agents not known to be myelosuppressive (e.g. not associated with reduced platelet or absolute neutrophil counts [ANC]): >= 7 days after the last dose of agent; for agents not listed, the duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair and the study-assigned research coordinator prior to enrollment
• Antibodies: >= 21 days must have elapsed from infusion of last dose of antibody, and toxicity related to prior antibody therapy must be recovered to grade =< 1
• Corticosteroids: If used to modify immune adverse events related to prior therapy, >= 14 days must have elapsed since last dose of corticosteroid
• Hematopoietic growth factors: >= 14 days after the last dose of a long-acting growth factor (e.g. Neulasta) or 7 days for short-acting growth factor; for agents that have known adverse events occurring beyond 7 days after administration, this period must be extended beyond the time during which adverse events are known to occur; the duration of this interval must be discussed with the study chair and the study-assigned research coordinator
• Interleukins, interferons and cytokines (other than hematopoietic growth factors): >= 21 days after the completion of interleukins, interferon or cytokines (other than hematopoietic growth factors)
• Stem cell infusions (with or without total-body irradiation [TBI]):
• Allogeneic (non-autologous) bone marrow or stem cell transplant, or any stem cell infusion including donor lymphocyte infusion (DLI) or boost infusion: >= 84 days after infusion and no evidence of graft versus host disease (GVHD)
• Autologous stem cell infusion including boost infusion: >= 42 days
• Cellular therapy: >= 42 days after the completion of any type of cellular therapy (e.g. modified T cells, natural killer (NK) cells, dendritic cells, etc.)
• X-ray therapy (XRT)/External Beam Irradiation including Protons: >= 14 days after local XRT; >= 150 days after TBI, craniospinal XRT or if radiation to >= 50% of the pelvis; >= 42 days if other substantial bone marrow (BM) radiation; note: radiation may not be delivered to "measurable disease" tumor site(s) being used to follow response to subprotocol treatment
• Radiopharmaceutical therapy (e.g., radiolabeled antibody, 131I-MIBG): >= 42 days after systemically administered radiopharmaceutical therapy
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: For patients with solid tumors without known bone marrow involvement:
• Peripheral absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1000/mm^3
• Platelet count >= 100,000/mm^3 (transfusion independent, defined as not receiving platelet transfusions for at least 7 days prior to enrollment)
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Patients with known bone marrow metastatic disease will be eligible for study provided they meet the blood counts (may receive transfusions provided they are not known to be refractory to red cell or platelet transfusions); these patients will not be evaluable for hematologic toxicity
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 70 ml/min/1.73 m^2 or a serum creatinine based on age/gender as follows:
• Age: 1 to < 2 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 0.6; female 0.6
• Age: 2 to < 6 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 0.8; female 0.8
• Age: 6 to < 10 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 1; female 1
• Age: 10 to < 13 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 1.2; female 1.2
• Age: 13 to < 16 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 1.5; female 1.4
• Age: >= 16 years; maximum serum creatinine (mg/dL): male 1.7; female 1.4
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Bilirubin (sum of conjugated + unconjugated) =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT) (alanine transferase [ALT]) =< 135 U/L (for the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT is 45 U/L)
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Patients must be able to swallow intact capsules/tablets, unless otherwise specified in the subprotocol to which they are assigned
• GENERAL INCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Agent specific limitations on prior therapy will be included with specific treatment subprotocols
• GENERAL EXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Pregnant or breast-feeding women will not be entered on this study due to risks of fetal and teratogenic adverse events as seen in animal/human studies, or because there is currently no available information regarding human fetal or teratogenic toxicities; pregnancy tests must be obtained in females who are post-menarchal; males or females of reproductive potential may not participate unless they have agreed to use an effective contraceptive method
• GENERAL EXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Concomitant medications
• Corticosteroids: at the time of consent and enrollment to regimen specific subprotocols, patients receiving corticosteroids who have not been on a stable or decreasing dose of corticosteroid for at least 7 days prior to enrollment to the subprotocol will not be eligible; if used to modify immune adverse events related to prior therapy, >= 14 days must have elapsed since last dose of corticosteroid
• Investigational drugs: patients must meet criteria for prior therapy at the time of consent and enrollment to a subprotocol; other investigational agents may not be administered to patients while they are receiving study drug as part of a subprotocol
• Anticancer agents: patients must meet criteria for prior therapy at the time of consent and enrollment to a subprotocol; other investigational agents may not be administered to patients while they are receiving study drug as part of a subprotocol
• Anti-GVHD agents post-transplant: patients who are receiving cyclosporine, tacrolimus or other agents to prevent graft-versus-host disease post bone marrow transplant are not eligible
• GENERAL EXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Patients who have an uncontrolled infection are not eligible
• GENERAL EXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Patients who have had a prior solid organ transplant are not eligible
• GENERAL EXCLUSION CRITERIA FOR SUBPROTOCOLS: Additional agent specific criteria will be included with specific treatment subprotocols

• Willing and able to provide written informed consent and privacy authorization for the release of personal health information. NOTE: Privacy authorization may be either included in the informed consent or obtained separately.
• Males 21 years of age and above
• Histological or cytological confirmed prostate adenocarcinoma from TRUS biopsy, radical prostatectomy or TURP Or Documented histopathology or cytopathology of prostate adenocarcinoma from a biopsy of a metastatic site Or Metastatic disease typical of prostate cancer (i.e., involving bone or pelvic lymph nodes or para-aortic lymph nodes) AND a serum concentration of PSA >20ng/mL at the time of initial prostate cancer diagnosis
• No previous diagnosis of a second, non-prostate malignancy that requires additional systemic therapy except cancer in situ of bladder and basal cell cancer of skin

• There is no age limit for the low risk stratum (stage I ovarian immature teratoma and stage I non-seminoma or seminoma malignant GCT [all sites])
• Standard risk 1: Patient must be < 11 years of age at enrollment
• Standard risk 2: Patients must be >= 11 and < 25 years of age at enrollment
• Patients enrolling on one of the low risk arms must be newly diagnosed with a stage I germ cell tumor; for the standard risk arms, patients must be newly diagnosed with metastatic germ cell tumor (stage II or higher); histologic confirmation of a primary extracranial germ cell tumor in any of the categories outlined below is required of all patients at enrollment except for those who were initially diagnosed with stage I non-seminoma malignant GCT and later recur during observation post surgery off study; for these patients, if elevated tumor markers rise to > 5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) on at least 2 measurements taken at least 1 week apart, a diagnostic biopsy is not required for enrollment
• Low risk stage I immature teratoma (IT); site: ovarian; stage: Children's Oncology Group (COG) stage I, Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) stage IA and IB; grade: 2 or 3; histology: pure immature teratoma (may contain microscopic foci of yolk sac tumor), mixed immature and mature teratoma, (no pathological evidence of MGCT); tumor markers: alpha-FP =< 1,000 ng/mL, beta-HCG institutional normal; all ages
• Low risk stage I non-seminoma MGCT; site: ovarian, testicular, or extragonadal; stage: COG stage I, FIGO stage IA and IB, American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) testicular stage IA, IB and IS; histology: must contain at least one of the following: yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma (pure or mixed); all ages
• Low risk stage I seminoma-MGCT; site: testicular; stage: COG stage I; AJCC testicular stage IA IB, and IS; histology: must contain at least one of the following: may contain immature/mature teratoma; may NOT contain yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma; all ages
• Standard risk 1 (SR1); site: ovarian, testicular, or extragonadal; stage: COG stage II-IV, FIGO stage IC, FIGO stage II-IV (International Germ Cell Consensus Classification [IGCCC] criteria DO NOT apply); histology: must contain at least one of the following: yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma; age (years) < 11
• Standard risk 2 (SR2)
• Site: ovarian; stage: COG stage II and III, FIGO stage IC, II and III; histology: must contain at least one of the following: yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma; age (years) >= 11 and < 25
• Site: testicular; stage: COG stage II-IV, AJCC stage II, III, IGCCC good risk; histology: must contain at least one of the following: yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma; tumor markers: must be IGCCC good risk; post op: alpha-FP < 1,000 ng/mL, beta-HCG < 5,000 IU/mL and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) < 3.0 x normal; age (years) >= 11 and < 25
• Site: extragonadal; stage: COG stage II; histology: must contain at least one of the following: yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma; age (years) >= 11 and < 25
• Notes:
• IGCCC criteria only apply to SR2 patients with a testicular primary tumor
• Use post-op tumor marker levels to determine IGCCC risk group
• Stage 1 seminoma patients are not eligible for the standard risk arms of the study
• For the low risk stage I non-seminoma MGCT and the standard risk arms, components of yolk sac tumor, embryonal carcinoma, or choriocarcinoma can be mixed with other forms of GCT, such as seminoma or mature or immature teratoma; if yolk sac tumor is the only malignant component present, then it must be deemed by the pathologist to be greater than a "microscopic component" of yolk sac tumor
• Patients must have a performance status corresponding to Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) scores of 0, 1, 2 or 3; use Karnofsky for patients > 16 years of age and Lansky for patients =< 16 years of age
• Organ function requirements apply ONLY to patients who will receive chemotherapy (SR1 and SR2 patients)
• Adequate renal function defined as:
• Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 70 mL/min/1.73 m^2 (within 7 days prior to enrollment) OR
• A serum creatinine based on age/gender as follows (within 7 days prior to enrollment): (mg/dL)
• 1 month to < 6 months male: 0.4 female: 0.4
• 6 months to < 1 year male: 0.5 female: 0.5
• 1 to < 2 years male: 0.6 female: 0.6
• 2 to < 6 years male: 0.8 female: 0.8
• 6 to < 10 years male: 1 female: 1
• 10 to < 13 years male: 1.2 female: 1.2
• 13 to < 16 years: male: 1.5 female: 1.4
• >= 16 years male: 1.7 female: 1.4
• Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT) (aspartate aminotransferase [AST]) or serum glutamate pyruvate transaminase (SGPT) (alanine aminotransferase [ALT]) < 2.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) for age (for the purpose of this study, the ULN for SGPT is 45 U/L) (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Peripheral absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,000/mm^3 (within 7 days prior to enrollment) AND
• Platelet count >= 100,000/mm^3 (within 7 days prior to enrollment)
• Patients enrolling on the standard risk arms must be medically fit to receive protocol treatment and with no contraindications to protocol treatment
• Eligibility criteria to participate in the pilot study of the AYA-Hears instrument (patient reported outcomes [PROs] of ototoxicity) Note: participants in group 1 will not receive AGCT1531 protocol-directed therapy; all other AYA-HEARS patients must be enrolled on the AGCT1531 SR2 arm in order to participate
• >= 11 and < 25 years old at enrollment
• Able to fluently speak and read English
• Has received prior cisplatin- or carboplatin-based chemotherapy regimen for malignancy including diagnoses other than germ cell tumor
• Followed for cancer or survivorship care at one of the following institutions:
• Baylor College of Medicine/Dan L Duncan Comprehensive Cancer Center
• Dana Farber/Harvard Cancer Center
• Hospital for Sick Children
• Children's Hospital of Eastern Ontario
• Oregon Health and Science University
• Seattle Children's Hospital
• Yale University
• Patients with any diagnoses not listed including:
• Stage I testicular cancer patients who have undergone primary RPLND (retroperitoneal lymph node dissection)
• Pure dysgerminoma
• Pure mature teratoma
• Pure immature teratoma COG stage I, grade I
• Pure immature teratoma COG stage I, grade 2,3 with alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) >= 1000 ng/mL
• Pure immature teratoma COG stage II
•IV or FIGO stage IC to IV
• "Poor risk" GCT (age >= 11 years old and COG stage IV ovarian, COG stage III or IV EG, or IGCCC intermediate or poor risk testicular), or
• Primary central nervous system (CNS) germ cell tumor
• Germ cell tumor with somatic malignant transformation
• Spermatocytic seminoma
• Patients must have had no prior systemic therapy for the current cancer diagnosis
• Patients must have had no prior radiation therapy with the exception of CNS irradiation of brain metastases; (this exception only applies to SR1 patients; any patients over age 11 with distant metastases to brain [stage IV disease] would be considered poor risk and therefore not eligible for this trial)
• Patients with significant, pre-existing co-morbid respiratory disease that contraindicate the use of bleomycin are ineligible for the standard risk arms of the trial
• Female patients who are pregnant since fetal toxicities and teratogenic effects have been noted for several of the study drugs; a pregnancy test is required for female patients of childbearing potential; (this criteria applies ONLY to patients who will receive chemotherapy [SR1 and SR2 patients])
• Lactating females who plan to breastfeed their infants; (this criteria applies ONLY to patients who will receive chemotherapy [SR1 and SR2 patients])
• Sexually active patients of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of their study participation; (this criteria applies ONLY to patients who will receive chemotherapy [SR1 and SR2 patients])

• For patients enrolled on APEC14B1 prior to enrollment on AALL1631, the required diagnostic bone marrow sample has been fulfilled
• For patients who have not previously enrolled on APEC14B1 prior to enrollment on AALL1631, a baseline diagnostic sample (or peripheral blood sample with blasts if marrow sample unavailable) must be available to develop an MRD probe
• In addition, laboratory reports detailing evidence of BCR-ABL1 fusion or ABL-class fusion must be submitted for rapid central review within 72 hours of study enrollment
• >= 1 year (365 days) and =< 21 years at ALL diagnosis
• Ph+ (BCR-ABL1 fusion): newly diagnosed de novo ALL (B-ALL or T-ALL) or mixed phenotypic acute leukemia (MPAL meeting 2016 World Health Organization [WHO] definition) with definitive evidence of BCR-ABL1 fusion by karyotype, fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) and/or molecular methodologies
• ABL-class fusion: newly diagnosed B-ALL with definitive evidence of ABL-class fusions. ABL-class fusions are defined as those involving the following genes: ABL1, ABL2, CSF1R, PDGFRB, PDGFRA. Methods of detection include fluorescence in-situ hybridization (FISH, e.g. using break-apart or colocalization signals probes), multiplex or singleplex reverse-transcription polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR), whole transcriptome or panel-based ribonucleic acid (RNA)-sequencing (e.g. TruSight RNA Pan-Cancer Panel; Illumina, San Diego, CA, USA or similar)
• Ph+ patients must have previously started Induction therapy, which includes vincristine, a corticosteroid, pegaspargase, with or without anthracycline, and/or other standard cytotoxic chemotherapy
• Ph+ patients have not received more than 14 days of multiagent Induction therapy beginning with the first dose of vinCRIStine
• Ph+ patients may have started imatinib prior to study entry but have not received more than 14 days of imatinib
• ABL-class fusion patients must have previously completed the 4 or 5 weeks of multiagent Induction chemotherapy (Induction IA phase)
• ABL-class fusion patients may have started imatinib during Induction IA, at the same time of or after the first vinCRIStine dose
• Patients must have a performance status corresponding to Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) scores of 0, 1, or 2
• Direct bilirubin =< 2.0 mg/dL
• Shortening fraction of >= 27% by echocardiogram
• Ejection fraction of >= 50% by radionuclide angiogram or echocardiogram
• Corrected QT interval, QTc < 480 msec
• Note: Repeat echocardiogram and electrocardiogram are not required if they were performed at or after initial ALL diagnosis, before study enrollment
• Creatinine clearance or radioisotope glomerular filtration rate (GFR) >= 70 mL/min/1.73 m^2 or serum creatinine within normal limits based on age/gender, as follows:
• 1 to < 2 years: maximum serum creatinine 0.6 mg/dL (both male and female)
• 2 to < 6 years: maximum serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL (both male and female)
• 6 to < 10 years: maximum serum creatinine 1 mg/dL (both male and female)
• 10 to < 13 years: maximum serum creatinine 1.2 mg/dL (both male and female)
• 13 to < 16 years: maximum serum creatinine 1.5 mg/dL (male), 1.4 mg/dL (female)
• >= 16 years: maximum serum creatinine 1.7 mg/dL (male), 1.4 mg/dL (female)
• Known history of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)
• ALL developing after a previous cancer treated with cytotoxic chemotherapy
• Active, uncontrolled infection, or active systemic illness that requires ongoing vasopressor support or mechanical ventilation
• Down syndrome
• Pregnancy and breast feeding
• Female patients who are pregnant since fetal toxicities and teratogenic effects have been noted for several of the study drugs; a pregnancy test is required for female patients of childbearing potential
• Lactating females who plan to breastfeed their infants
• Sexually active patients of reproductive potential who have not agreed to use an effective contraceptive method for the duration of treatment according to protocol
• Patients with congenital long QT syndrome, history of ventricular arrhythmias or heart block
• Prior treatment with dasatinib, or any TKI other than imatinib

• The patient must have signed and dated an Institutional Review Board (IRB)-approved consent form that conforms to federal and institutional guidelines
• Age >= 18 years
• Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0, 1 or 2
• Diagnosis of metastatic adenocarcinoma of colon or rectum without previous chemotherapy or any other systemic therapy for metastatic colorectal cancer except for one cycle of FOLFOX or capecitabine and oxaliplatin (CAPOX), either with or without bevacizumab prior to enrollment. Upon enrollment, the preceding single cycle of FOLFOX or FOLFOX + bevacizumab, if the patient received one, will not count towards patients' assessments per protocol. Cycle 1 day 1 (C1D1) of atezolizumab or C1D1 of mFOLFOX6/bevacizumab + atezolizumab will correspond to the first day the patient received therapy on trial
• Tumor determined to be mismatch-repair deficient (dMMR) by Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)-certified immunohistochemical (IHC) assay with a panel of all four IHC markers, including MLH1, MSH2, PMS2, and MSH6; alternatively, MSI-H diagnosed by polymerase chain reaction (PCR)-based assessment of microsatellite alterations (either Bethesda markers or Pentaplex panel) or by next-generation sequencing (NGS) are eligible
• Documentation by PET/CT scan, CT scan, or MRI that the patient has measurable metastatic disease per RECIST 1.1
• No immediate need for surgical intervention for the primary tumor or palliative diversion/bypass
• Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) must be >= 1500/mm^3 (obtained within 28 days prior randomization)
• Platelet count must be >= 100,000/mm^3 (obtained within 28 days prior randomization)
• Hemoglobin must be >= 8 g/dL (obtained within 28 days prior randomization)
• Total bilirubin must be =< 4 x ULN (upper limit of normal) (obtained within 28 days prior randomization); and
• Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) must be =< 3 x ULN for the lab with the following exception: for patients with documented liver metastases, AST and ALT must be =< 5 x ULN (obtained within 28 days prior randomization)
• Calculated creatinine clearance >= 30 mL/min (obtained within 28 days prior randomization)
• A urine sample tested for proteinuria by either the dipstick method, urinalysis (UA), or a urine protein creatinine (UPC) ratio:
• The dipstick method must indicate 0-1+ protein; if dipstick reading is >= 2+, a 24-hour urine must be done and it must demonstrate < 1.0 g of protein per 24 hours or a UPC ratio < 1.0
• A urine protein creatinine (UPC) ratio must be < 1.0; if the UPC ratio is >= 1.0 a 24-hour urine must be done and it must demonstrate < 1.0 g of protein per 24 hours
• Urinalysis must indicate < 30 mg/dl. If urinalysis >= 30 mg/dl, a 24-hour urine must be done and it must demonstrate < 1.0 g of protein per 24 hours or a UPC ratio < 1.0
• International normalized ratio of prothrombin time (INR) and prothrombin time (PT) must be =< 1.5 x ULN for the lab within 28 days before randomization; patients who are therapeutically treated with an agent such as warfarin may participate if they are on a stable dose and no underlying abnormality in coagulation parameters exists per medical history, regardless of PT/INR results
• Pregnancy test done within 28 days prior randomization must be negative (for women of childbearing potential only); pregnancy testing should be performed according to institutional standards; administration of atezolizumab or mFOLFOX6/bevacizumab/atezolizumab may have an adverse effect on pregnancy and poses a risk to the human fetus, including embryo-lethality; should a woman become pregnant or suspect she is pregnant while she or her partner is participating in this study, she should inform her treating physician immediately
• Women of child-bearing potential and men must agree to use adequate contraception methods that result in a failure rate of < 1% per year during the treatment period (hormonal or barrier method of birth control; abstinence) prior to study entry, for the duration of study participation, and for 5 months (150 days) after the last dose of atezolizumab, 6 months after the last dose of bevacizumab, and 6 months after the last dose of mFOLFOX6; a woman is considered to be of childbearing potential if she is not postmenopausal, has not reached a postmenopausal state (>= 12 continuous months of amenorrhea with no identified cause other than menopause), and has not undergone surgical sterilization (removal of ovaries and/or uterus); examples of contraceptive methods with a failure rate of < 1% per year include: bilateral tubal ligation; male partner sterilization; intrauterine devices; the reliability of sexual abstinence should be evaluated in relation to the duration of the clinical study and the preferred and usual lifestyle of the patient; periodic abstinence (e.g., calendar, ovulation, symptothermal, or postovulation methods) and withdrawal are not acceptable methods of contraception; men must refrain from donating sperm during this same period
• Known hypersensitivity to Chinese hamster ovary cell products or other recombinant human antibodies, fluoropyrimidines, folic acid derivatives or oxaliplatin
• Uncontrolled high blood pressure defined as systolic blood pressure (BP) > 150 mmHg or diastolic BP > 100 mmHg with or without anti-hypertensive medication; patients with initial BP elevations are eligible if initiation or adjustment of BP medication lowers pressure to meet entry criteria
• Documented New York Heart Association (NYHA) class III or IV congestive heart failure
• Serious or non-healing wound, skin ulcer, or bone fracture
• History of inherited bleeding diathesis, gastrointestinal (GI) perforation, significant vascular disease (e.g., aortic aneurysm requiring surgical repair or recent arterial thrombosis or symptomatic peripheral ischemia, transient ischemic attack [TIA], cerebrovascular accident [CVA] or arterial thrombotic event), abdominal fistula, intra-abdominal abscess, or active GI bleeding (with cause not addressed) within 6 months prior to randomization, or other medical condition in the opinion of the treating oncologist that makes the risk of cardiovascular or bleeding complications with bevacizumab use unacceptably high
• Other malignancies are excluded unless the patient has completed therapy for the malignancy >= 12 months prior to randomization and is considered disease-free; patients with the following cancers are eligible if diagnosed and treated within the past 12 months: in situ carcinomas or basal cell and squamous cell carcinoma of the skin
• Known DPD (dihydro pyrimidine dehydrogenase) deficiency
• Symptomatic peripheral sensory neuropathy >= grade 2 (Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events [CTCAE] version [v] 5.0)
• Prior treatment with oxaliplatin chemotherapy within 6 months prior to randomization
• History of grade 2 hemoptysis (defined as 2.5 mL of bright red blood per episode) within 1 month prior to screening
• Prior treatment with anti-PD-1, or anti-PD-L1 therapeutic antibody or pathway-targeting agents; patients who have received prior treatment with anti-CTLA-4 may be enrolled provided the following requirements are met:
• Minimum of 12 weeks from the first dose of anti-CTLA-4 and > 6 weeks from the last dose to randomization
• No history of severe immune-related adverse effects (CTCAE grade 3 and 4) from anti-CTLA-4
• Treatment with systemic immunosuppressive medications (including, but not limited to, prednisone, cyclophosphamide, azathioprine, methotrexate, thalidomide, and anti-tumor necrosis factor [anti-TNF] agents) within 14 days prior to randomization; however,
• Patients who have received acute, low dose, systemic immunosuppressant medications (e.g., a one-time dose of dexamethasone for nausea; or chronic daily treatment with corticosteroids with a dose of =< 10 mg/day methylprednisolone equivalent) may be enrolled
• The use of inhaled corticosteroids and mineralocorticoids (e.g., fludrocortisone) for patients with orthostatic hypotension or adrenocortical insufficiency is allowed
• Known clinically significant liver disease, including active viral, alcoholic, or other hepatitis; cirrhosis; fatty liver; and inherited liver disease; however,
• Patients with past or resolved hepatitis B infection (defined as having a negative hepatitis B surface antigen [HbsAg] test and a positive anti-HBc [antibody to hepatitis B core antigen] antibody test) are eligible if polymerase chain reaction (PCR) for hepatits B virus (HBV) ribonucleic acid (RNA) is negative per local guidelines
• Patients positive for hepatitis C virus (HCV) antibody are eligible only if polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is negative for HCV RNA per local guidelines
• History or risk of autoimmune disease, including, but not limited to, systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, inflammatory bowel disease, vascular thrombosis associated with antiphospholipid syndrome, Wegener's granulomatosis, Sjogren's syndrome, Bell's palsy, Guillain-Barre syndrome, multiple sclerosis, autoimmune thyroid disease, vasculitis, or glomerulonephritis; however,
• Patients with a history of autoimmune hypothyroidism on a stable dose of thyroid replacement hormone may be eligible
• Patients with controlled type 1 diabetes mellitus on a stable insulin regimen may be eligible
• Patients with eczema, psoriasis, lichen simplex chronicus or vitiligo with dermatologic manifestations only (e.g., patients with psoriatic arthritis would be excluded) are permitted provided that they meet the following conditions:
• Patients with psoriasis must have a baseline ophthalmologic exam to rule out ocular manifestations
• Rash must cover less than 10% of body surface area (BSA)
• Disease is well controlled at baseline and only requiring low potency topical steroids (e.g., hydrocortisone 2.5%, hydrocortisone butyrate 0.1%, fluocinolone 0.01%, desonide 0.05%, alclometasone dipropionate 0.05%)
• No acute exacerbations of underlying condition within the last 12 months (not requiring psoralen plus ultraviolet A radiation [PUVA], methotrexate, retinoids, biologic agents, oral calcineurin inhibitors; high potency or oral steroids)
• History of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, organizing pneumonia (i.e., bronchiolitis obliterans, cryptogenic organizing pneumonia, etc.), or active or recently active (within 90 days of randomization) pneumonitis (including drug induced) that required systemic immunosuppressive therapy (i.e. corticosteroids, etc.). History of radiation pneumonitis in the radiation field (fibrosis) is permitted
• History of severe allergic, anaphylactic, or other hypersensitivity reactions to chimeric or humanized antibodies or fusion proteins
• Patients with known active tuberculosis (TB) are excluded
• Severe infections within 28 days prior to randomization, including but not limited to, hospitalization for complications of infection, bacteremia, or severe pneumonia
• Signs or symptoms of infection within 14 days prior to randomization
• Received oral or intravenous (IV) antibiotics within 14 days prior to randomization; patients receiving prophylactic antibiotics (e.g., for prevention of a urinary tract infection or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease) are eligible
• Major surgical procedure, open biopsy, or significant traumatic injury within 28 days prior to randomization or anticipation of need for a major surgical procedure during the course of the study
• The administration of a live, attenuated vaccine within 28 days prior to randomization
• Pregnant women are excluded from this study because atezolizumab is an agent with the potential for teratogenic or abortifacient effects; because there is an unknown but potential risk for adverse events in nursing infants secondary to treatment of the mother with atezolizumab, breastfeeding should be discontinued if the mother is treated with atezolizumab; these potential risks may also apply to other agents used in this study; (Note: pregnancy testing should be performed within 28 days prior to randomization according to institutional standards for women of childbearing potential)
• Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patients on effective anti-retroviral therapy with undetectable viral load within 6 months are eligible for this trial
• Patients with prior allogeneic bone marrow transplantation or prior solid organ transplantation

1. Adults and children (age 2 or older) being managed or treated for nonalcoholic fatty liver disease. Diagnosis is based on the clinical judgement of the care provider. 1. Inability to provide informed assent/consent.